Timeline for How can $\binom{n}{k}=\frac{n\cdot (n-1)\cdot ... \cdot (n-k+1)}{k!}$, with $k<0$ or $k>n$ be equal to $0$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
2 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 21 at 16:59 | vote | accept | Benjamin Letelier Lazo | ||
| Jun 21 at 16:50 | history | answered | Masd | CC BY-SA 4.0 |