Timeline for Simplify the Laplace Transform for $E_{i}(-y)^{2}$
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 24 at 16:56 | comment | added | Srini | @DavidH, story as promised (and owed): tinyurl.com/MathJax0 (it has the way to reach me in case you want to comment on it, to be clear, not asking you should, jfyi). | |
| Jun 22 at 16:25 | comment | added | Srini | Thanks David. Now that you have navigated your way to this question, I owe you a full explanation of why I made you do those tedious double summations (for which I am grateful). Let me write up the whole (naive) story, when I get time. | |
| Jun 22 at 2:43 | comment | added | David H | Your integral for the Laplace transform is correct except there shouldn't be a negative sign out front: $F(p)=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty} \frac{log(p+2+x)}{(p+1+x)(x+1)} dx$. I'll try to write a full answer when I get the time. Cheers :) | |
| Apr 27 at 22:36 | comment | added | Srini | Anyone else that has the question of how 2 log terms became one, like the more mysteriously disappeared question, see example 5 here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contour_integration . My key hole is at -1 instead of at origin, otherwise the same principle | |
| Apr 27 at 19:20 | comment | added | Srini | Now my comment looks out of context. I can swear Mark Viola had asked a question, but I can't see it now :) | |
| Apr 27 at 19:19 | comment | added | Srini | In the remaining 2 segments of the contour I chose, they become $2\pi i$. | |
| Apr 25 at 20:57 | history | asked | Srini | CC BY-SA 4.0 |