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Apr 27 at 22:08 vote accept Ayan Bhowmik
Apr 25 at 2:37 answer added Ayan Bhowmik timeline score: 1
Apr 25 at 2:32 comment added John Omielan You're welcome. And, yes, the problem can basically reduce to $x^2 - y^2 = t$, as Will Jagy pointed out earlier. You should consider answering this question yourself with the details. FYI, the solution that I worked out myself is basically the same as that in Post #$7$ of the first AoPS thread I linked to above.
Apr 25 at 2:29 comment added Ayan Bhowmik Thanks @JohnOmielan didn't know such a search engine existed. I see that the problem reduces to $x^{2}-y^{2}=t$ as pointed out by Will Jagy.
Apr 25 at 2:12 comment added John Omielan FYI, using an Approach0 search, there's the AoPS threads 2-B-7 polynomials and B.Math - rational solution. Also, Two problems on solving equations in rational and integers has your problem as a second part, but neither of the $2$ answers there deal with it.
Apr 25 at 1:30 comment added Merosity I don't want to derail from you working with Will here, so this is something to look at later if you're interested. You're essentially given an isotropic vector in a nondegenerate quadratic space, so it is universal. This actually corresponds to an explicit construction here, but you'll have to do a bit of legwork. Here's where I first learned it in case it's helpful to you: Quadratic forms and the local global-principle - swc-math.github.io/aws/2021/index.html#2021Chan
Apr 25 at 1:26 comment added Ayan Bhowmik It's from ISI TOMATO. Year 2007 question paper.
Apr 25 at 1:22 comment added Will Jagy Meanwhile, what book is this from?
Apr 25 at 1:19 comment added Will Jagy Tell you what: how would you show that, given rational $t,$ there is a rational representation $x^2 - y^2 = t \; \; ? \; \; \; $
Apr 25 at 1:07 comment added Ayan Bhowmik This might be wrong but can I do something with Bezout's Identity by saying that for $x$ and $y$ be integers and so I can reduce it to for $ap+bq$ using @WillJagy 's idea where $a$ and $b$ have infinite solutions. Would this suffice as a proof because the question is asking for the opposite?
Apr 25 at 0:28 comment added Will Jagy it does not change the problem to demand $a,b$ integers. After that, there is no damage by demanding $\gcd(a,b) = 1.$ Next, $\frac{-b}{a}$ is a rational square, so.....
Apr 25 at 0:21 history asked Ayan Bhowmik CC BY-SA 4.0