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Sep 5, 2016 at 16:03 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 5, 2013 at 12:56 comment added Albanian_EAGLE definitely, its pretty useful :)
Nov 29, 2013 at 5:36 comment added Michael Hardy You're welcome. Might you consider up-voting this answer?
Nov 29, 2013 at 5:29 comment added Albanian_EAGLE very helpful, thanks.
Nov 29, 2013 at 5:27 comment added Michael Hardy If $U$ and $V$ are independent exponentially distributed random variables with expected value $\alpha$, then $X=U/\alpha$ and $Y=V/\alpha$ are independent exponentially distributed random variables with expected value $1$. And $X/(X+Y)$ is equal to $U/(U+V)$. So $\alpha$ just cancels out.
Nov 29, 2013 at 3:09 comment added Albanian_EAGLE but then how does the coefficient $\alpha$ simplify in the integration so that we get still just $w$? (your second method)
Nov 28, 2013 at 18:51 comment added Michael Hardy It should still be true in that case.
Nov 28, 2013 at 15:53 comment added Albanian_EAGLE Can we say the same for identically distributed random variables with the exponential distribution with a parameter $\alpha \neq 1$? Following the second method I think it shouldnt hold true, am I right?
Jun 10, 2013 at 19:16 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 10, 2013 at 18:45 history answered Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0