Timeline for Proof for $(n!)^2 \geq n^n$ without using induction [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
13 events
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May 23, 2021 at 15:59 | vote | accept | Abhishek A Udupa | ||
May 23, 2021 at 15:51 | history | closed |
Martin R Mark Viola vitamin d Henry CommunityBot |
Duplicate of Prove that $n! > \sqrt{n^n}, n \geq 3$, Show that if $n>2$, then $(n!)^2>n^n$. | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:47 | comment | added | Abhishek A Udupa | I've edited the question to the right proposition. Also I'd like to prove this without using induction. | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:46 | comment | added | Henry | Does this answer your question? Prove that $n! \gt \sqrt{n^n}, n \geq 3$ | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:45 | history | edited | Abhishek A Udupa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 3 characters in body; edited title
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May 23, 2021 at 15:43 | answer | added | Ritam_Dasgupta | timeline score: 0 | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:41 | answer | added | Thomas Andrews | timeline score: 2 | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:40 | comment | added | Martin R | Another one: math.stackexchange.com/q/2919901/42969. | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:38 | comment | added | Martin R | Does this answer your question? Show that if $n>2$, then $(n!)^2>n^n$. | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:34 | comment | added | plop | After you fix the typo, $\frac{((n+1)!)^2/(n+1)^{n+1}}{(n!)^2/n^2}=(n+1)(1+1/n)^{-n}\geq (n+1)e^{-1}$. So, for $n>2$ one term of $\frac{(n!)^2}{n^n}$ to the next differ by a factor grater than $1$. So, you only need to check the first few values $n=1,2$. | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:29 | comment | added | Mark Viola | @Joe And also $n=2$. | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:28 | comment | added | Joe | What about $n=1$? | |
May 23, 2021 at 15:27 | history | asked | Abhishek A Udupa | CC BY-SA 4.0 |