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Mar 31, 2016 at 15:16 history edited joriki
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Mar 31, 2016 at 15:16 answer added joriki timeline score: 1
Jul 9, 2014 at 17:28 comment added Ross Millikan As you have duplicates in the deck, it is like drawing with replacement. In that case, there are more than $10 \choose 6$ hands. $10 \choose 6$ requires that there only be one of each rank in a given hand-you are drawing without replacement.
Mar 4, 2013 at 22:10 history edited antonAdelson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2013 at 21:08 history edited antonAdelson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2013 at 19:40 answer added azimut timeline score: 0
Mar 4, 2013 at 18:49 comment added coffeemath OK now it makes sense, and seems a nice question. +1
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:43 comment added gt6989b @coffeemath At each step, drawing any value with uniform probability 1/10, independent of what has been dreawn already. If you like, sample from $\{1..10\}$ with replacement.
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:41 comment added coffeemath With an infinite deck, I don't see how to assign probabilities to the 6 card hands drawn.
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:25 comment added antonAdelson Edited. I tried different things all day and I am not any closer to the answer...
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:23 history edited antonAdelson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2013 at 17:21 review First posts
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:22
S Mar 4, 2013 at 17:21 history suggested gt6989b CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2013 at 17:20 comment added gt6989b Hint: what combination can he draw to get no points?
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:19 review Suggested edits
S Mar 4, 2013 at 17:21
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:07 history edited antonAdelson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2013 at 17:07 history edited Alex CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 4, 2013 at 17:03 history asked antonAdelson CC BY-SA 3.0