Timeline for Prove by induction that $x^n-y^n$ is divisble by $x-y$ for $ n \ge 1 $
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| May 19, 2018 at 22:08 | comment | added | user | @PossiblyDakota $p_{n-1}(x)$ and $p_n(x)$ are just polynomials of degree $n−1$ and $n$ in $x$ and $y$ thus they can be also indicated as some integer $r_1$ and $r_2$. It is a minor issue in the proof. | |
| May 19, 2018 at 22:08 | comment | added | PossiblyDakota | Also Epp states that r is an integer. Sorry. | |
| May 19, 2018 at 22:07 | history | edited | user | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 76 characters in body
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| May 19, 2018 at 22:01 | comment | added | PossiblyDakota | I don't quite follow the notation you are using. Epp simply uses the variable r when using the inductive hypotheses for divisibility. Would this also be valid if? so then I think I proved it successfully on paper just before I logged on today. $ xr(x-y) + y^n(x-y) = (xr+y^n)(x-y) $ | |
| May 19, 2018 at 7:32 | history | answered | user | CC BY-SA 4.0 |