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May 28, 2018 at 6:36 audit First posts
May 28, 2018 at 6:37
May 17, 2018 at 13:01 comment added DRF +1 for $(A\implies B)\vee(B\implies C)$ is always true. Had to actually think about that one it's a really nice one.
May 17, 2018 at 11:42 comment added hmakholm left over Monica @RandyRanderson: I've updated with an extended attempt to explain.
May 17, 2018 at 11:40 history edited hmakholm left over Monica CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 17, 2018 at 6:32 comment added Artimis Fowl @RandyRanderson think through the second 2 givens in the coin example. Why is it that if the coin shows heads on the first flip then 'coin shows trails in the first flip implies coin shows heads on the first flip'? Well it's because the final statement is true, and literally anything implies a true statement. This breaks down if we swap out the event A for another event, say by flipping the coin again.
May 17, 2018 at 5:54 comment added user2357112 @RandyRanderson: In your edit, the misplaced quantifiers are hiding behind the ambiguities of English. You're implicitly quantifying over all possible results of the coin flip, and you're performing this quantification in the wrong place.
May 17, 2018 at 3:00 comment added Randy Randerson Do you have any comments on the edit?
May 17, 2018 at 2:40 history edited hmakholm left over Monica CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 17, 2018 at 2:35 history answered hmakholm left over Monica CC BY-SA 4.0