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Mar 29, 2018 at 17:47 history edited Robert Z CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 13:47 vote accept The Pointer
Mar 29, 2018 at 13:32 comment added Robert Z No, $x^2$ is strictly increasing in $(0,+\infty)$ but it has no inflection point.
Mar 29, 2018 at 13:30 history edited Robert Z CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 13:27 comment added The Pointer Ahh, ok. So, just to be absolutely sure, I'll repeat my question to Mundron Schmidt: if a function is injective along some interval, must that interval necessarily also include the inflection point? After all, as you say, the inflection point is simply a boundary.
Mar 29, 2018 at 13:21 history edited Robert Z CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 13:20 comment added Robert Z Injectivity is not influenced by the appearance of the inflection point! If $f'\geq0$ in $(a,b)$ and $f'=0$ at a finite number of points in $(a,b)$ then $f$ is strictly increasing by the MVT.
Mar 29, 2018 at 13:16 history edited Robert Z CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 29, 2018 at 13:15 comment added The Pointer Thanks for the response, but I was more-so looking for something that directly addresses my 3 points above. Enlightening approach, nonetheless.
Mar 29, 2018 at 13:14 history answered Robert Z CC BY-SA 3.0