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Nov 17, 2012 at 18:25 comment added Thomas Andrews Sorry, that only works when both $x$ and $n$ are odd. If $x$ is even and $n$ odd, then $1^n+2^n+..+x^n\equiv (\frac{x}{2})^n \pmod x$. If $x$ is divisible by $4$ and $n>1$, then $(\frac x 2)^n \equiv 0\pmod x$.
Nov 17, 2012 at 18:19 comment added Thomas Andrews One quick reduction occurs when $n$ is odd. Then the expression $1^n+2^n+...+x^n \equiv 0\pmod x$. That's because $a^n + (x-a)^n \equiv 0\pmod x$.
Nov 17, 2012 at 18:18 history edited sperners lemma CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 17, 2012 at 18:17 comment added sperners lemma @ThomasAndrews, so we need a,x coprime. Thanks very much for pointing this out.
Nov 17, 2012 at 18:14 comment added Thomas Andrews Yeah, I got the formula wrong in my comment above, but my counter-example is for your second version. There, $a=2$, $x=8$, $n=1$ and $n'=5$.
Nov 17, 2012 at 18:13 comment added sperners lemma @ThomasAndrews, In the first part I'm using $n \equiv n' \pmod{\varphi(x)}$ then $a^n \equiv a^{n'} \pmod {x}$. I think holds in all cases. In the second part I'm just using $a \equiv b \pmod x$ then $a^n \equiv b^n \pmod x$.
Nov 17, 2012 at 18:13 comment added Thomas Andrews If $x=8$ then $\varphi(x)=4$ and $2^5\equiv 0 \not\equiv 2^1\pmod 8$ even though $5\equiv 1\pmod 4$
Nov 17, 2012 at 18:10 comment added Thomas Andrews $\varphi(x)$ doesn't do you any good, because the numbers from $1$ to $x$ are not all relatively prime to $x$. In general, it is not true that if $a\equiv b\pmod {\varphi(x)}$ that $a^{\varphi(x)}\equiv b^{\varphi(x)}\pmod x$
Nov 17, 2012 at 16:20 vote accept abhishek srivastava
Nov 17, 2012 at 15:00 history answered sperners lemma CC BY-SA 3.0