Timeline for When does non-negativity of the integral of a function imply that the function itself is non-negative?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 9, 2012 at 14:22 | vote | accept | Andy Teich | ||
| Jul 4, 2012 at 19:24 | history | edited | Andy Teich | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited title
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| Jul 4, 2012 at 15:20 | history | edited | Andy Teich | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
formulated the question for the set $\mathcal{N}$ instead of $\mathcal{M}
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| Jul 4, 2012 at 15:08 | history | edited | Norbert | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 48 characters in body; deleted 1 characters in body
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| Jul 4, 2012 at 15:04 | history | edited | Davide Giraudo | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 2 characters in body; edited tags
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| Jul 4, 2012 at 15:02 | answer | added | N. S. | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jul 4, 2012 at 14:55 | history | edited | Andy Teich | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
edited tags
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| Jul 4, 2012 at 14:48 | history | asked | Andy Teich | CC BY-SA 3.0 |