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May 22, 2012 at 6:55 history edited Amihai Zivan CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 11, 2012 at 17:09 history edited bzc CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 6, 2012 at 7:20 comment added Amihai Zivan the induction is to actually show that (n-k)(k+1)>=n for every natural k.
Feb 6, 2012 at 0:38 comment added robjohn This proof is good (+1) (it is essentially Henry's proof). However, I see no induction.
Feb 5, 2012 at 22:47 history answered Amihai Zivan CC BY-SA 3.0