Some years ago, a police officer named Derek Chauvin was found guilty of 2nd degree murder of George Floyd. He received a sentence of about 20 years. At the time it was reported that had he been a felon, the sentence would have been 40 years automatically.
At the same time Chauvin was also ordered to appear in court for felony tax evasion. On March 17th 2023 he was found guilty of felony tax evasion over several years from 2012 to 2019.
Does that mean “innocent until proven guilty” is to be taken literally? Even though the crime happened from 2012 to 2019, is it true that on March 16th 2023 he was innocent of tax evasion, and on March 17th 2023 he was guilty? Would he have gotten 40 years if (a) second degree murder was committed after March 2023, or (b) if he had been sentenced after that date?