8

It is reported that police arrested a man at his home in the middle of the night, drove him three miles away and "dearrested" him nine minutes later. He was left with no money, phone and bare footed and was struck by a car and killed attempting to get home.

Is this actually legal? Is it legal for the police to use arrest in this way to isolate people from their belongings and leave them in a vulnerable position, such as barefoot, penniless and stranded in the middle of the night? Does the reason they did it matter?

Improve this question
1
  • 3
    In February 2023 the Independent Office for Police Conduct (IOPC) concluded its investigation into the death of the man referred to in this question, Gareth Roper. The IOPC referred the case to the Crown Prosecution Service to decide whether to prosecute the officers because the IOPC "determined there was an indication the officers may have committed a criminal offence in relation to the decision to de-arrest Mr Roper and drop him off some distance from his home address." To date (23 Sep 2023) there is no news about the CPS's decision nor specifics about the potential criminal offence.
    – Lag
    Commented Sep 23, 2023 at 11:45

0

Reset to default

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .