A few days after he allegedly kissed in the mouth a female player without consent, it has been announced that "(Luis) Rubiales (...) faces an investigation that could end in sexual aggression charges from Spanish prosecutors".
The kiss happened in Australia but it is going to be prosecuted in Spain, which leaves me wondering what rules apply when deciding where should a crime be prosecuted.
The question is both general ("how is decided in which country a crime will be tried") but I'm also interested in how the general rules apply to this particular example.
Some facts about this case:
- The alleged crime or misdemeanour happened in Australia, after the final of the female FIFA World Cup.
- Both the offender and the victim were Spanish, and they were in Australia acting as part of a Spanish organisation (the Spanish Football Federation).
- As far as I know, nobody has filed any complaint in Australia and no prosecution has been started in Australia.
- Some people (but still not the victim) have filed complaints in Spain.
- It seems actually easier to do the trial in Spain because offender, victim and relevant witnesses are likely to be in Spain, and material evidence (the video recording) is available everywhere.
Then my questions are:
- What are the rules to decide in which country a criminal case is tried and how do these rules apply for this example be tried in Spain?
- Could the defendant challenge the competence of the Spanish courts by alleging that the case could only be tried in Australia?