Why is "standard of living" a consideration in divorce asset division for adults at all, if children aren't involved?
In my layman's mind:
Nobody is entitled to a "standard of living". Just because you lucked out to marry a high-net-worth or high-earning individual, it should not "entitle" you to live the good life in perpetuity after you stopped being married.
This is separate from the idea that a spouse may have contributed to said high-earning status by supporting their career, which is a far valid - but a wholly separate - reason in divorce court. For example, I assume a judge can apply "standard of living" idea even if the wealthy spouse can show that the wealth/income didn't change upwardly during the marriage; and that the spouse didn't contribute economically at all, due to paying for hired help to do house chores, and no children resulting etc...
It seems like a moral hazard, in that it encourages lower income earners to trick higher income earners into marrying them under false pretenses, just to divorce them after a couple of years for a big payout in raised standard of living, or to simply not be a good spouse since they won't suffer in the divorce.
Ideally, I'm looking for an authoritative answer to "why", for example a reason given by a judge establishing precedent, or a politician proposing the law that passed which establishes the idea). However, a solid legal analysis would also be good.
UPDATE: Just to clarify - the question isn't asking why there is spousal support/maintenance in general. It's asking very specifically, why "established standard of living" is the criterion used to decide the amount. In other words, if a spouse is used to a billionaire lifestyle, why is the support aimed at perpetuating that same expensive lifestyle, as opposed to being a modest livable amount (say, mode or median or average wage).