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I heard recently that the Arizal writes that Purim is a higher level holiday than Yom Kippur. In fact, Yom Kippur is Yom KiPurim, a day like Purim. What is the connection between the two? They seem like polar opposites

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  • Aish Torah offers the following connection between Yom Kippur and Purim: aish.com/h/pur/t/dt/48949286.html?tab=y. The following excerpt is taken from the Chabad web site chabad.org/holidays/purim/article_cdo/aid/2817/jewish/… "Yom Kippur is the day that empowers the Jew to rise above the constraints of physicality and rationality. Purim is the day that empowers the Jew to live a physical life that is the vehicle for a supra-physical, supra-rational commitment to G-d."
    – JJLL
    Commented Mar 2, 2015 at 0:49
  • Yalkut Shim'oni (Mishlei 944), Tik' Zohar (57b, "פורים אתקריאת על שם יום הכפורים דעתידין לאתענגא ביה ולשנויי ליה מענוי לענג"), P'ri Tzadik (Purim), ShLaH (Zachor), Shem MiSh'mu'el (Purim 5675), K'dushas Levi (K'dusha Rishona).
    – Fred
    Commented Mar 2, 2015 at 1:01
  • R' Tzadok also discusses this in R'sisei Laila (end of §58) and Yisrael K'doshim (§9).
    – Fred
    Commented Mar 2, 2015 at 1:21
  • For the record, Yom Kippurim does not actually mean "a day like Purim" - that would be Yom K'furim. However, it's close enough that an exposition can be made.
    – Ypnypn
    Commented Mar 2, 2015 at 4:08
  • See Pachad Yitzchak (Purim, Maamar 11) by Rav Hutner.
    – Shmuel
    Commented Mar 17 at 13:54

2 Answers 2

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The Medrash records a machloket Tannaim about whether in the future all the moadim are batel except for Yom Kippur and Purim or all the moadim except for Purim. The Maharal writes in his hakdama to Ohr Chadash, his commentary on Megillat Esther, that on both days the Jewish people were/are opposed by a force that seeks their complete destruction - Yom Kippur siritually by the Accuser and Purim physically by Haman - and in the end they were/are saved. On Yom Kippur we therefore serve G-d as sechel (intellect) by annulling our physical selves via the 5 inuyim (self-afflictions); on Purim we serve G-d as guf (physical/body) by annulling our intellect via the Seudah/drinking ("ad d'lo yada..."). (It's also perhaps noteworthy that both days are preceded by a contrasting couterpart, erev Yom Kippur when we are commanded to eat in preparation for the fast and Taanit Esther when we fast; there are many other interesting parallels.)

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My answer is that Purim starts with the Jews getting a Divine death sentence for giving up on Jerusalem and considering themselves like gentiles. Then Purim ends with Mordechi second to the king and willing to sacrifice the temple. "All the talk about half the kingdom is code for anything but the temple" and if that is not it's enough Esther the Jew it's married to the goy but now everyone lives happily ever after. What is the difference is the Jews were able to get Mercy from God in that being separated from the heathens was to much. So too we hope that God will realize that we are sinning because it is to much. In other words we should tell God that we v are in the exile because we are attracted to the fleshpots of the gentiles not that we are great tsaddikim who need to put on tefillin like habad in the exile or that we learn Torah instead of going into the army because we are lazy

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  • Welcome to MY. Since MY is different from other sites you might be used to, see here for a guide which might help understand the site.
    – mbloch
    Commented Dec 24, 2017 at 17:01
  • This being said I don't undestand what you are trying to say ... The question was the connection between Purim and Yom Kippur. Does your answer address this?
    – mbloch
    Commented Dec 24, 2017 at 17:02

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