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    Please read the whole section of Rohlfs - it makes it clear that the si passivante is only a specific usage and has nothing to do with the generic reflexive voice. Moreover it is not saying it derived from the Latin passive, it's saying that (in certain contexts) it replaced it.
    – Denis Nardin
    Commented May 15, 2023 at 7:52
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    I might write a complete answer later today, since this is the only one of your questions that explains where you explain the background, and so it's much easier to answer
    – Denis Nardin
    Commented May 15, 2023 at 7:54