Is The Lord God Almighty the Temple and the Lamb in Revelation 21:22?

Question

I was looking at Revelation 21:22 -

• (KJV) And I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple of it.
• (NIV) I did not see a temple in the city, because the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are its temple.
• (ESV) And I saw no temple in the city, for its temple is the Lord God the Almighty and the Lamb.

as per my understanding, the majority of translations are rendering the verse to indicate some version of the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb [are] the Temple.

In The Greek:

 γὰρ Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς ὁ Παντοκράτωρ ναὸς αὐτῆς ἐστιν, καὶ τὸ Ἀρνίον

we find the verb used to link The Lord God Almighty with the temple and the Lamb is the 3rd person singular verb ἐστιν, which is the word "is"; making its literalness say something like The Lord God Almighty [is] the temple and the lamb..

I do understand that translators often prioritize the meaning over strict grammatical adherence;
However given that we have translators that do not deviate from the literal text (DARBY, DRA, JUB, MOUNCE, NTFE , etc... )

What semantic rule(s) are the majority translators using to:

1. Change the 3rd person singular verb "IS" into a 3rd person plural verb "ARE"
2. Subsequently having to change the order of the subject verb agreement from The Lord God Almighty - Temple - Lamb into Temple - The Lord God Almighty - Lamb.

Additionally are their other areas in the text where we see this synesis being applied to the same extent or more?

Answer 1

Grammar

First, there is a simple rule of grammar - that when using the verb "to be" (ie, εἰμί in Greek) the nouns take the same case after as before. We can see a good example of this in John 1:1 which reads:

... and the Word (nominative) was God (nominative case again)

In order to decide which is the subject and object in such constructions, it is necessary to observe the placement of the article - in the above case, it is before the word "Logos" so, that becomes the subject. Where there is no article, we must rely on other things. However, in Rev 21;22, we have the article before "God" and "Lamb" so these must be the subject. Therefore, we must translate:

... for Lord the God the Almighty and the Lamb is its temple.

Thus, the ESV quoted by the OP is grammatically incorrect.

Plural vs Singular

It is true that the verb ἐστιν is singular (hence my translation above). Thus, the text is treating "God and the Lamb" as a singular subject. We see this in other places as well such as:

• Rev 22:3, 4 - The throne of God and of the Lamb will be within the city, and His [singular] servants will worship Him. They will see His [singular] face, and His [singular] name will be on their foreheads.
• Matt 28:19 - Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name [singular] of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit

This should not surprise us - God and the Lamb are a single entity despite being two persons.

I know of only two versions which correctly translates Rev 21:22, viz: BLB & YLT.