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Jun 22 at 22:42 history edited BlauKakaPOW CC BY-SA 4.0
tried to make the title more readable and better for search
Jun 21 at 12:57 answer added Alazon timeline score: 1
Jun 21 at 12:44 vote accept BlauKakaPOW
Jun 20 at 23:53 comment added BlauKakaPOW @Alazon I'm more "questioning" if it's used like an auxiliary. To me, V1 is "scheinen". V2 is "geworden". "zu sein" is basically "V1.1" to me. But I have never seen a construction for Perfekt without sein or haben in the "V1" space. So why is scheinen used here? As I asked Hubert below, does the "zu sein" in the "V1.1" position satisfy the Perfekt clause because that would come before the "gewesen/geworden"?
Jun 20 at 16:00 comment added Alazon You missed the auxiliary, frankly. "verrückt geworden" combines with the auxiliary "sein" in your example (forming a Perfekt tense). Why do you say that "scheinen" is the auxiliary? It is parallel to the English translation in which "seem" embeds a perfect, except that the English perfect always uses a "have"-auxiliary.
Jun 20 at 6:42 answer added Hubert Schölnast timeline score: 6
Jun 20 at 3:29 history edited bakunin CC BY-SA 4.0
typos
Jun 20 at 1:50 history asked BlauKakaPOW CC BY-SA 4.0