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Dong,2019 said that

A firm that colludes with other firms in a foreign product market is subject to that country’s antitrustlaws. Foreign leniency law passage is thus likely to affect firms that operate across borders, not least because antitrust authorities coordinate their actions in prosecuting similar cartels

So "that" in the phrase "that country’s antitrustlaws" in the first sentence represents "A firm" or "other firms". I thought it represents "a firm" but it is meaningless if it is the case because it is for sure a firm will be affected by its country's antitrustlaws.

I doubted that"that country's antitrustlaws" are antitrustlaws of "other firms" in this circumstance.

Update: Can this first quoted sentence be simply translated to "If firm A in the US colludes with firm B in China, firm A is also subject to China antitrust laws".

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    Are you unclear about the meaning, or are you questioning the grammar, and if the latter, of which sentence?
    – Xanne
    Commented May 7, 2021 at 5:05
  • Hi @Xanne, I was questioning the grammar of the first sentence quoted. Thank you. Commented May 7, 2021 at 6:06
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    The "that" in "A firm that..." refers to "firm" as its antecedent. It does make sense. "That" introduces a relative clause that restrictively modifies "firm" to tell you what kind of firm. It's essentially saying, "A firm, a firm colluding with other firms in a foreign product market, is subject to..." or, "A colludes-with-other-firms-in-a-foreign-product-market firm is subject to..." The "that" clause restricts the meaning of "a firm" from just any firm to just whatever firm engages in the activity of colluding with other firms in a foreign product market. Commented May 7, 2021 at 7:09
  • You're overthinking this. When it says "subject to that country's antitrust laws" it means likely to be affected by antitrust laws, not just under the theoretical jurisdiction. You wouldn't bother listing all the laws in effect unless they were actually relevant and likely to be enforced.
    – Stuart F
    Commented May 7, 2021 at 9:46
  • Sorry @BenjaminHarman, the word "that" that I am confused about here is in the phrase "that country's antitrustlaws". I edited the question already. Commented May 8, 2021 at 0:03

3 Answers 3

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A firm that [relative pronoun with the referent NP “a firm”] colludes with other firms in a foreign product market is subject to that [demonstrative adjective/determiner] country’s antitrustlaws.

Foreign (adjective) = a foreign country’s

As a demonstrative adjective/determiner “that” refers to an object that is more distant in space or time. Often, and in this case, it is the noun in the subordinate clause, thus “that country’s” refers to “a foreign country’s”

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  • Hi @Greybeard, I did a search from Google but NP stands for "No Problem", but it seems not suitable in your explanation, Could you please explain to me what NP stands for in your explanation? Or it stands for "Noun Phrase" please? Commented May 8, 2021 at 0:15
  • So, FMHO, I try to convert your explanation to simple words, the sentence can be said like that:" If firm A in the US colludes with firm B in China, firm A is also subject to China antitrust laws". Please let me know if I fall into any fallacy. Commented May 8, 2021 at 0:26
  • @PhucNguyen NP = noun phrase (basically, anything that can be the subject of a clause.)
    – Greybeard
    Commented May 8, 2021 at 10:18
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A firm that colludes with other firms in a foreign product market is subject to that country’s antitrustlaws.

The referent of the first that is clear. But the second seems to be the country in which the firms, including the firm that’s from outside the country, are colluding.

Although I think the meaning is obvious, I find the sentence ungrammatical.

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The grammatical language used in this context (relative pronoun "that") is "antecedent"; grammarians say that "firm" is the antecedent of the relative (pronoun) "that". You can however paraphrase those words by saying that "that" represents the noun (phrase) "firm", as when the concept of antecedent is being defined in a lesson on grammar. As there are no determiners used with "firm" (the zero determiner is however technically a determiner), you shouldn't use any in your comments ("a firm" or "other firms" is not what is represented).

The that-clause modifies "firms", that is, it particularizes the concept so that you are not talking any more about all firms as in "Firms are commercial organisations." (That means all firms, anywhere on the planet, and any time), but instead you are talking about certain firms having the particularity expressed in the modifying clause (this particularity being that they operate across borders).

You can replace this construction by an ing-clause, and say the exact same thing.

  • Foreign leniency law passage is thus likely to affect firms operating across borders, […]

This tells you, perhaps more vividly, that you are not talking about any firms or some indefinite firms but only about at least a part of those that are able to operate across borders (and it might be all of them). This does not means that only these firms will be affected; possibly, firms of other types will also be affected by the laws.

If you wanted to say instead that all firms operating across borders are likely to be affected you'd use the determiner "the" (definite article).

  • Foreign leniency law passage is thus likely to affect the firms that operate across borders, […]

  • Foreign leniency law passage is thus likely to affect the firms operating across borders, […]

Note: "Foreign leniency law passage" is not the most idiomatic construction that you could use; "the passage of foreign leniency law" is more usual. Moreover, in the present context "passage" is not the best word; something like "introduction" is preferable (Introduction of foreign leniency law).

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  • Much appreciate @LPU, I have two questions here based on your answer: (1) Can this first quoted sentence be simply translated to "If firm A in the US colludes with firm B in China, firm A is also subject to China antitrust laws" (2) The sentence "Foreign leniency law passage is thus likely to affect firms that operate across borders, not least because antitrust authorities coordinate their actions in prosecuting similar cartels", does it means that:"If firms A operates both in China and US, US and China authority departments will join hand and prosecute this company"? Commented May 8, 2021 at 0:48
  • @PhucNguyen (1) If the quoted sentence can be taken on the basis of the greatest generality, then yes, particularization of it to the US and China is a direct consequence; however, realistically (from the point of view of international law) I can't see how a US firm could be found to be answerable to Chinese law, short of an international treaty. (2) Yes, something like that, there is the implication of the existence of international treaties in this statement; (1/2)
    – LPH
    Commented May 8, 2021 at 12:01
  • @PhucNguyen However, what follows elicits a somewhat different picture (Even if international antitrust authorities do not share information as per the leniency applicant’s request, […]); there are some cases, then, when the international authorities do not even share information; but in those cases other authorities (national, I presume) are liable to take action because of information that is still made public by the international authorities. (2/2)
    – LPH
    Commented May 8, 2021 at 12:01
  • Thank you for your explanation, I have a broader picture now. Commented May 8, 2021 at 20:57

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