How do Protestants explain the relationship between justification and the works of the servants in the Parable of the Talents?

Question

This is not the question 'What does the Parable of the Talents mean according to Protestantism,' but a question specifically regarding the nature of the 'wicked' servant, and how it corresponds to his justification.

Here is the Parable:

Matthew 25:14-30 (DRB)

14 For even as a man going into a far country, called his servants, and delivered to them his goods; 15 And to one he gave five talents, and to another two, and to another one, to every one according to his proper ability: and immediately he took his journey. 16 And he that had received the five talents, went his way, and traded with the same, and gained other five. 17 And in like manner he that had received the two, gained other two. 18 But he that had received the one, going his way digged into the earth, and hid his lord's money. 19 But after a long time the lord of those servants came, and reckoned with them. 20 And he that had received the five talents coming, brought other five talents, saying: Lord, thou didst deliver to me five talents, behold I have gained other five over and above. 21 His lord said to him: Well done, good and faithful servant, because thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will place thee over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord. 22 And he also that had received the two talents came and said: Lord, thou deliveredst two talents to me: behold I have gained other two. 23 His lord said to him: Well done, good and faithful servant: because thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will place thee over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord. 24 But he that had received the one talent, came and said: Lord, I know that thou art a hard man; thou reapest where thou hast not sown, and gatherest where thou hast not strewed. 25 And being afraid I went and hid thy talent in the earth: behold here thou hast that which is thine. 26 And his lord answering, said to him: Wicked and slothful servant, thou knewest that I reap where I sow not, and gather where I have not strewed: 27 Thou oughtest therefore to have committed my money to the bankers, and at my coming I should have received my own with usury. 28 Take ye away therefore the talent from him, and give it to him that hath ten talents. 29 For to every one that hath shall be given, and he shall abound: but from him that hath not, that also which he seemeth to have shall be taken away. 30 And the unprofitable servant cast ye out into the exterior darkness. There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.

I'm going to assume at least a few things are not disputed:

• A talent was an enormous sum of money at that time (cf. NIV, "bag of gold"). According to the Encyclopedia Judaica, a talent was equivalent of 3000 shekels, or $6000.

• Entering into the joy of the Lord refers to Heaven.

• Entering the exterior darkness where there is wailing and gnashing of teeth is Hell.

Given this background, how do Protestants explain the fact that the Lord entrusted an abundance of his goods, which I'm going to assert is grace (and I don't think Protestants dispute this, but correct me if I'm wrong; cf. Eph 4:7-8; Mt 25:14-15), to his "servant" (not someone 'unsaved'),¹ and depending on how he makes good with what is entrusted to him, he is judged to either heaven or hell.

Question

That is, how isn't the justification of Jesus' servants spoken of in this Parable? And if it is about justification (again, which I believe heaven and hell as the respective outcomes necessitate), how, on the basis of negligence can you "receive the grace of God in vain," and go to hell, if justification is not contingent at all upon our works done by Jesus' grace?

Thanks in advance.

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^{1 There are only two categories in this parable: both kinds of servants: those who go to hell for ill conduct, and those go to heaven. The servant who is "assigned" a place in hell was beforehand just a servant, and his conduct seems to determine which kind of servant he is. The word "assigned" necessitates this.}

Answer 1

For the sake of brevity, I have placed a single page regarding the parables of the kingdom here on google docs.

A number of the parables of the kingdom, as described in the page, convey that what is 'likened' to the kingdom is not actually the kingdom. The parable itself reveals that the essence of the kingdom resides within something that is 'like' the kingdom but is not - actually - the kingdom.

For that is what the kingdom of heaven is like. One thinks it is all around one (in the company of whomever) and one discovers, to one's horror, that the reality is not as the appearance.

As the psalmist complains :

Yea, mine own familiar friend, in whom I trusted, which did eat of my bread, hath lifted up his heel against me. Psalm 41:9 KJV.

The net is cast wide (into the world) by those called 'fishers of men' and they drag the net into the boat. "The kingdom of heaven." But, no, it is not quite. It is only 'like' the kingdom of heaven.

For there is - now - a sifting. And some are cast back into the sea. The bad. And some are put into vessels. They, as it were, become vessels. Full of the Holy Spirit, are they. The good.

For justification by faith is a matter of a relationship with Jesus Christ - the King of the Kingdom.

Many are there, milling about, busy, important even, sitting - perhaps - in the very chief seats. But what matters is what happens in the last parable - or, rather, in the reality which fulfils all parables - the coming of the Son of man.

If one has had a close relationship with Jesus Christ - the Son of God who loved me and gave himself for me - and if one has been a sheep (my sheep hear my voice and they follow me) then it shall not be said by him :

Depart from me ye workers of iniquity. I never knew you. Matthew 7:23 KJV.

If one is truly justified by faith, one will - in response to such unutterable love - be glad to serve the Lord and to take whatever talent he gives, be it two or five or ten, and to trade with it, bravely and in faith, to please him who hath called one and saved one.

But the churlish and the mean-spirited and the fearful and the unbelieving (Revelation 21:8) have no real part in the kingdom of heaven.

But they may well sneak in to the 'likeness' of the kingdom.

They may get caught up in the net along with some others. And they may not be long in the boat.

Or they may last a lifetime, sitting in a pew. And be buried in the communal place set aside for believers.

But all will be made plain :

When the Son of man shall come in his glory. Matthew 25:31 KJV.

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As to justification by faith itself, I have again - for brevity's sake - put a single page on google docs here.

Justification by faith does not pertain to legal righteousness, or human righteousness or arbitrary righteousness or assumed righteousness.

Justification by faith is when faith is associated with the Righteousness of God Himself.

Those who truly and genuinely are - by God himself - associated with God's own righteousness, are those of whom it is said :

Whom he did predestinate, them he also called : and whom he called, then he also justified : and whom he justified, then he also glorified. Romans 8:30 KJV.

And there is nothing whatsoever in the parable of the talents which contradicts Paul's doctrine in that verse.

The parable of the talents simply narrates the fact of the sifting during life as the kingdom progresses towards a finality.

And, in the words of Jesus regarding the parable of the net :

So shall it be at the end of the world : the angels shall come forth, and sever the wicked from among the just. Matthew 13:49 KJV.

. . . or, as one might say - sever the wicked from among the justified.

Answer 2

Justification through grace alone and faith alone doesn't mean that one can act in an evil or negligent manner and still be saved. One can lose one's salvation through failing to act in accordance with Christ's teachings. True faith always results in a person wanting to act in a beneficial manner towards others and to do them good. If a person's faith doesn't lead them to act in this way then such faith is dead and therefore they will lose their salvation because of possessing a false faith. So the conclusion that faith and works justify isn't true. Faith in Christ, who atoned for our sins, alone makes us righteous in God's sight, but true faith is never alone but always results in doing good works.

Relating this to the parable, the talents refer to the God given gifts and abilities one has which one should use to further God's kingdom. If one is negligent in using them in service to God and one's neighbour then one will lose one's faith and therefore also one's justification and salvation.

Answer 3

I may be looking at this parable completely wrong but as a Christian, I believe OSAS (once saved always saved). We do not work or do good deeds for our salvation and once we have been "born again or regenerated" our standing as a child of Gods is secure. Justification does not come from our works or what we do for God but once we have been justified we are eager to please Him and to the best of our abilities be obedient to His word.

Because the master represents the Lord Himself when He returns in glory and power to establish His kingdom, it is remarkable to contemplate that the holy, just perfect Lord of the universe will deign to praise His true disciples for their faithfulness, imperfect as it will have been. Yet that is the glorious prospect of every child of God who loves like Paul, the appearing of Christ. (2 Tiomothy 4:8)

It is my thought that the first two slaves were true followers of Christ, eager to do His work,obey and follow Him before His return. Our Lord commended their attitudes more than their accomplishments as they did not know when their master would return.

The 3rd slave produced and presented his master with nothing more than he had been given charge of, infact he said,

1. "master, I knew you to be a hard man, reaping where you did not sow and gathering where you scattered no seed. And I was afraid, and went away and hid your talent in the ground; see you have what is yours.

like the other two, that slave was identified as belonging to the master (v. 14) representative of his belonging to Christ's church before the second coming. But in two distinct ways he proved that his identification with Christ was superficial and did not involve genuine faith or regeneration.

This slave did not misuse his talent on immoral and selfish pursuits like the prodigal son, he simply disregarded the stewardship and abilities he had been given that our Lord gives to each and every one of us that are His.

In much the same way, unbelieving church members live in the environment of God's redeemed community and enjoy exposure to the teachings of His word and the fellowship of His people. But inspite of their spiritual privilege, they make no positive response to the gospel and therefore can render no fruitful service.

2. This slave demonstrates his counterfeit allegiance by depreciating his masters character, accusing him of being "a hard man, reaping where he did not sow, and gathering where he had sowed no seed". He charged his owner with being unmerciful and dishonest.

This slave represents a professing Christian whose limited knowledge of God leads him to conclude that God is unjust, uncaring and undependable. He professes his relationship and allegiance to God but he has never rendered his heart to our Lord. He confesses Christianity but in name only. The master did not take away the slaves justification or his regenerated heart. This slave never belonged to the "Master" to begin with..

I hope this is in order of your question and this makes clear that our Lord does not take away the gift of salvation or we must work and do good deeds to be justified. Our good works come only after our salvation in reading, studying and being obedient to His word. He gifts us accordingly to our own abilities. When we carry forth He will reward us and our Master will say; "Well done, good and faithful servant".

This parable has nothing to do with the slaves conduct, works or lack of works but of a repentive heart and the saving grace of our Lord. Gods true children will always produce good fruits and obedience to God after true salvation.

Thank you for you time, I hope I have a answered and understood your question adequately.

Ref: John MacArthur and NKJV Bible

Answer 4

OP: "Given this background, how do Protestants explain the fact that the Lord entrusted an abundance of his goods, which I'm going to assert is grace (and I don't think Protestants dispute this, but correct me if I'm wrong; cf. Eph 4:7-8; Mt 25:14-15), to his "servant" (not someone 'unsaved'),1 and depending on how he makes good with what is entrusted to him, he is judged to either heaven or hell."

In the first place, if the talents, his goods, is grace, then it is asserting that grace fails. One had 5 graces and made 5 more and went to heaven. One had 2 graces and made 2 more and went to heaven. One had 1 grace and made zero and went to hell. That is to say, that Christ's grace was insufficient. While some religions teach that the grace of God fails, this cannot be true. So, since the parable is not about the failure of grace, what is the parable about?

The context is about what Israel was supposed to do, but had failed to do. This is about the Old Testament, not the New Testament.

For the LORD thy God blesseth thee, as he promised thee: and thou shalt lend unto many nations, but thou shalt not borrow; and thou shalt reign over many nations, but they shall not reign over thee. Deut 15:6

God gave them a charge. When Christ returned, what did He find? Rome after the Persians after the Babylonians had reigned. What did Christ say?

Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. Mat 21:34

Given this is the context, rather than misdefining "talent" as "grace", what then is it saying about the 5 and 2 and 1? He's saying even the minimum expectation for fruit had failed. Was there anyone who's righteousness exceeded the Pharisees (Mat 5:20)? No.

We believe the alternative who is Christ Jesus.

Answer 5

I have come back to this question continuously today and could not figure out exactly what the question was or how this parable relates to justification. Sola Gratia has also ask for answers that I found no revelence to the question, so let's take another look at your question.

You ask; how isn't the justification of Jesus' servants spoken of in this Parable. (Key word here is isn't)

For the life of me, I can find nowhere this parable speaks of justification. This parable is speaking of being ready for the kingdom and the return of Jesus. The visible kingdom (His church) and the outward Kingdom, (the external kingdom). The idea here is the visible earthly kingdom opposed to the inward heavenly invisible real kingdom of the truly redeemed.

As expressed above, ( in my first answer)as God's children we are given great responsibility while serving here on earth. Our fruits or our works are a outward sign of a regenerated heart. Outside of a regenerated heart there will be no fruit or work that can or will be pleasing to God.

James tells us if a person says he has faith, but gives no outward evidence of that faith thru righteous work his faith will not justify him. Luther and Calvin agreed. We are not saved or justified by a professing or a claim of faith but faith must be genuine before the merit of Christ will be imputed to anybody.

Luther said "that those works do not add to justification at the judgement seat of God but they do justify his claim to faith before the eyes of man".

James is saying, not that a man is justified before God by his works but his claims show to be genuine as he demonstrates the evidence of the claim made thru his work. You can see the agreement here.

Justification is a one time work by God and God alone.

I have looked at this question every which-a-way I know to look and find nothing about justification in it but our preparedness of the kingdom to come and the assuredness of God's children as we become fruitful and obedient to the calling He has bestowed and blessed us with.

If we look back to chapter 24 we find that our Lord has been answering the question that His Disciples had ask about his coming. He has already said five times in chapter 24 verse 36, 42,44 and 50 and then again in 25:13

"No one knows the day nor hour."

This is my reasoning for seeing this as speaking of His Kingdom and not justication.

Please accept my answer as not being a correction to your question but a understanding of what this parable relates to me as being ready for Gods kingdom to come.

Thank you for your time.