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I currently have 2 IP : one ipv4 and one ipv6 meaning that both protocols can be used. I'm wondering whether it is dangerous from a security standpoint :

  • If I make a set of rules for iptables (v4) does it mean that incoming ipv6 packets will pass through unfiltered potentially exploiting some bugs ?
  • Is it possible for a server that I connected to using ipv4 to query my ipv6 ?
  • Wouldn't it be wise to deactivate ipv6 until you can deactivate ipv4 (all internet services supporting ipv6) ?
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    One question per question, please. You can edit your post to focus on one issue.
    – Ben N
    Commented Jul 12, 2016 at 15:55

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Yes, iptables applies only to IPv4 traffic. To filter IPv6 traffic, you need to use ip6tables. It doesn’t share rules with iptables.

Yes, using an additional host (DNS name) only reachable via IPv6 (only AAAA record).

No, there are no inherent security risks. There may be privacy concerns or implementation bugs (rather unlikely) though.

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