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I know that most of you will think this question is a duplicate many times over, but I cannot seem to find help anywhere for my specific problem. I have a home neowork using a ClearAccess modem/router combo in bridge mode, with a tp-link router connected to a LAN port from the WAN port and acting as a router, all very usual.
Default gateway: 192.168.0.1

IPv4 addresses in the range 192.168.0.100-200

I set that all up when I got the router (the modem/router combo unit used to do everything). But then I found out that a computer can act as a router and I want to try this out. The modem/router combo has a 4 port switch in the back. Is it possible for me to connect another router (in this case an old pc) to the modem/router? I do not want the networks to see each other or interfere with each other.

I basically want 2 routers acting COMPLETELY independent of each other with no conflicts. Will simply changing the IP addresses and default gateways be enough?

current setup: modem/router in bridge mode (LAN 1)---->(WAN) Router

Planned setup:
modem/router in bridge mode (LAN 1)---->(WAN) Router 1 on 192.168.0.xxx

modem/router in bridge mode (LAN 2)---->(WAN) Router 2 on 192.168.1.xxx

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  • You will need an actual switch to do something like this.
    – Ramhound
    Commented Jan 29, 2017 at 22:55

2 Answers 2

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Should not be a problem. You are actually making two separate home networks that will use the wan router for accessing internet. So each router will see the wan router (which has several ports). The routers have two interfaces each. The one facing wan router will be on wan router's internal subnet. So there will be a small subnet with three participants. Now the other sides of your internal routers may well have the addresses you mentioned and they will be separate, each of their subnets behind its own router. That is it really.

WANr ------into 2 LAN routers --- they each provide access for their LANs
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Your ISP probably won't help you do this, because they would need to at least give you two IP addresses at the same time. Furthermore, if you wanted to truly have them segregated, you would need to have the vLANs trunked, which the ISP is also not likely to do. Otherwise, the two uplinks would be on the same network.

That being said, it is technologically possible to do this with the right configuration and if the ISP was willing to work with you.

You'd need a managed switch with trunking capability to handle the two networks, and your ClearAccess device is probably not capable of trunking.

It might look something like this:

uplink from ISP with vLAN 1 & 2 trunked -> managed switch

managed switch (vLAN 1) -> router 1

managed switch (vLAN 2) -> router 2

If you are testing your 2nd router, you should get most of the same functionality by just connecting it to the LAN port of your current setup and have it route there instead of directly to your ISP.

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