I am not quite sure about the first one. I think I've heard, that we need the constant in the model for it to be true.
See the following example where the residuals clearly correlate with the variable $x$ when we fit a model without constant.
set.seed(1)
x = 0:20
y = 5 + x + rnorm(21)
plot(x, y, ylim = c(0,30))
lines(x, predict(lm(y~0+x)))
And I think the third one does not matter for the question.
Consider the covariance (related to the correlation)
$$cov(x,u) = E[xu] - E[x]E[u]$$
The fact that $E[xu] = 0$ does not guarantee zero correlation. In particular if $E[u] \neq 0$ which can happen when there is no intercept.
Orthogonal, as in $x \cdot u = 0$, does not mean uncorrelated, $(x-\bar{x}) \cdot (u - \bar{u}) = 0$