Timeline for Percentile vs quantile vs quartile
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 25, 2022 at 6:27 | comment | added | Naveen Reddy Marthala | And just like one can partition the samples to have 1000 or 10,000 tiles, one can also partition the data to only have 4-tiles, which is what quartiles are, correct? | |
| Jun 25, 2022 at 6:01 | comment | added | Naveen Reddy Marthala | so, if quantiles are strictly expressed in 0 to 1 range, like 0.77th quantile, it is same as 77th percentile. so, are 100-tiles the same thing as percentiles, just expressed differently(80th percentile vs 0.80 quantile). however, if 1000-tiles or 10,000-tiles are to be made, these will be different from percentile, since 1000-tiles will have more bins than percentiles, that is 0 to 1000 to 1000-tiles, while it is 0-100 for percentiles. | |
| May 5, 2020 at 21:12 | comment | added | gosuto | @JosephGarvin the point Peter Flom is trying to make here is that quantiles are technically infinitely divisible whereas quartiles are not. E.g. you can have a 11.5625th quantile but only a 1st or 2nd quartile. | |
| Apr 18, 2019 at 22:55 | comment | added | Peter Flom | @JosephGarvin I don't understand your question. | |
| Apr 18, 2019 at 21:50 | comment | added | Joseph Garvin | @PeterFlom But what would that mean? When it's between 0 and 1 I can just observe Quantile=percentile/100. | |
| S Mar 16, 2018 at 19:40 | history | suggested | user82135 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Hopefully, improved the formatting.
|
| Mar 16, 2018 at 18:33 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Mar 16, 2018 at 19:40 | |||||
| Apr 22, 2016 at 11:09 | comment | added | Peter Flom | You can make 1000-tiles or 10,000 tiles or whatever you like. | |
| Apr 21, 2016 at 2:32 | comment | added | arun | Can you elaborate on "quantiles can go from anything to anything"? I see that in QQ plots, quantiles are not in the [0, 1] range like @stochazesthai's answer says. | |
| Jun 23, 2015 at 11:12 | comment | added | Peter Flom | The "percent" part of "percentile" comes from "cent" for 100. If you scale between 0 and 1 you have proportion. Of course, they are equivalent. | |
| Jun 23, 2015 at 0:50 | comment | added | Cam.Davidson.Pilon |
Can percentiles also be scaled to be between 0 and 1? Ex: does it make sense to say percentile(array, 0.5) (the median)?
|
|
| Jun 13, 2015 at 12:17 | history | edited | Peter Flom | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 25 characters in body
|
| Jun 13, 2015 at 11:52 | comment | added | Nick Cox | If you regard the maximum as the 4th quartile then I'd suggest counting must start with regarding the minimum as the 0th quartile. | |
| Jun 13, 2015 at 11:28 | history | answered | Peter Flom | CC BY-SA 3.0 |