Timeline for Why was the Westron tongue accepted as the common tongue in Middle-Earth?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
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Jun 16, 2020 at 9:31 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
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May 12, 2015 at 22:10 | comment | added | jamesqf | @Default_User: Why do (many of) the Irish speak both English and Gaelic, or the Welsh both English and Cymraeg? | |
Mar 15, 2015 at 0:13 | vote | accept | Valandil | ||
Mar 10, 2015 at 21:23 | comment | added | user8719 | @Default_User - Also, the ancestors of the Rohirrim split off from the House of Hador early in the First Age, and never passed over the mountains to Beleriand. Languages evolve and change, and Westron and Rohirric both have almost 7000 years of evolution behind them. | |
Mar 10, 2015 at 21:20 | comment | added | user8719 | @Default_User - they do, but they also speak their own language which evolved separately. Appendix F: "They still spoke their ancestral tongue ... but the lords of that people used the Common Speech freely". Important also to realise that the Rohirrim are comparatively recent arrivals; prior to TA 2510 their homeland was in the northern Vales of Anduin, not in Calenardhon (which became Rohan). Since they didn't live near the coasts they would have had limited contact with the Númenoreans. | |
Mar 10, 2015 at 21:16 | comment | added | Valandil | Why do the men of Rohan not speak it?In the books the people of Rohan have an Old English like language. | |
Mar 10, 2015 at 21:10 | history | answered | user8719 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |