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Jun 16, 2020 at 10:23 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Mar 13, 2019 at 16:00 comment added Xirema @Mołot Existing convention and context. I was going to try to find a counterexample, i.e. "here's a spell where the spell ending on one target explicitly causes the spell to fail for all the others" to show how the difference, but I couldn't find one, so if you know one, I could probably use that to make the answer better.
Mar 13, 2019 at 15:48 comment added Mołot " the spell's description would say so explicitly." - Why shouldn't we assume that if spell was meant to continue for other targets spells description would say so explicitly? Why shouldn't we assume that if spell was meant to end for that target only, description would say so? What makes your interpretation more true than its opposites?
Mar 13, 2019 at 15:40 history answered Xirema CC BY-SA 4.0