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1 vote
1 answer
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Why is the gauge group of pseudo-fermion mapping referred to as $\mathrm{SU}(2)$ and not $\mathrm U(2)$?

The representation of spin $\frac{1}{2}$ operators $\hat{S}^{a}$ by pseudo-fermions (also called Abrikosov fermions) is defined by the mapping $$ \hat{S}^{a} = \frac{1}{2} \text{Tr}\big[ \hat{\psi}^{\...
Farald's user avatar
  • 11
0 votes
1 answer
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$\mathbb{Z}_2$ gauge theory and disorder

I am confused about basics of $\mathbb{Z}_2$ (and likely other) gauge theories and plain disorder. Let $$H=H_F + h\,H_{EM}$$ $$H_F = -t\sum_l (c^\dagger_l \sigma^z_{l,l+1} c_{l+1} + h.c.)$$ be (the '...
Mark's user avatar
  • 101