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10 votes
1 answer
225 views

Wick Rotation vs Sokhotski-Plemeli Method to compute internal loop of Feynman correlators

When computing loop integrals in QFT, one often encounters integrals of the form $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty\frac{dp^4}{(2\pi)^4}\frac{-i}{p^2+m^2-i\epsilon},$$ where we are in Minkowski space with metric ...
Sean's user avatar
  • 101
2 votes
1 answer
295 views

Why do we Wick rotate before regularizing Feynman diagrams?

In Folland's Quantum Field Theory he mentions that we can apply Feynman's formula (Feynman parameterization) to either the Wick rotated integrals or the non-Wick rotated integrals corresponding to ...
CBBAM's user avatar
  • 3,350
4 votes
1 answer
448 views

Peskin and Schroeder Page no. 95 Feynman Diagrams

From Peskin and Schroeder Page no. 95, ... First, what happened to the large time $T$ that was taken to $\infty(1- i\epsilon)$? We glossed overit completely in this section, starting with Eq. (4.43). ...
Anagh Venneti's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
143 views

Can you perform a Wick rotation if the poles are on the imaginary axis?

I know you can perform a Wick rotation whenever the poles are outside the contour but what happens if the poles are on the imaginary axis? Can you do it anyway?
user787670's user avatar
8 votes
2 answers
790 views

Lorentz vs. Euclidean invariance for hard momentum cutoff in QFT

Several accounts of QFT allege that using a hard momentum cutoff $p^2<\Lambda^2$ breaks Lorentz invariance. For instance, see Schwartz's book, p833, or Weinberg p14, or answers here. But I don't ...
EmmyNoether's user avatar
5 votes
2 answers
482 views

About sending time to infinity in a slightly imaginary direction in QFT

I am going through the Peskin and Schroeder QFT book. While proving the Gell-Mann and Low theorem in chapter 4 of their book, the authors started with the equation \begin{equation} e^{-iHT}|0\rangle = ...
Mass's user avatar
  • 2,038
14 votes
1 answer
1k views

Wick rotation vs. Feynman $i\varepsilon$-prescription

The generating functional $Z[J]$ of some scalar field theory is \begin{equation} Z[J(t,\vec{x})]=\int \mathcal{D}\phi e^{i\int (\mathcal{L}+J\phi)d^4x} \end{equation} This integral is not well defined ...
P. C. Spaniel's user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
2k views

Feynman $i\varepsilon$-prescription in path integral by adding an imaginary part to time

It is known that the well-definiteness of the path integral leads to the Feynman's $i\varepsilon$-prescription for the field propagator. I've found many ways of showing this in the literature, but it ...
Guillermo Franco Abellán's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
757 views

The way momentum space integrals tend to infinity

At the beginning of chapter 15 of Schwartz, he states that $$\int d^4k \frac{k^2}{k^4}=\int \frac{d^4k}{k^2}\sim \int k\ dk. $$ I don't see how he got this at all. Isn't this just the integral \...
InertialObserver's user avatar
4 votes
0 answers
491 views

Is Wick rotation of loop integrals legitimate?

In Feynman diagram calculations, we seem to invariably Euclideanise loop integrals in order to exploit the resulting spherical symmetry. This Wick rotation is simply a deformation of the contour; ...
gj255's user avatar
  • 6,425
4 votes
2 answers
934 views

Wick rotations, convergence and Feynman propagators?

It is said (in e.g. Hawking, 1979, Euclidean quantum gravity) that the integral: $$ \int \mathcal{D}\phi \exp(iS[\phi])\tag{1} $$ for real fields in Minkowski space does not converge, but the Wick ...
Quantum spaghettification's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
234 views

Spinor vacuum energy

I'm reading the calculation in the book Quantum field theory in a nutshell of A. Zee of chaoter II.5 In this chapter the vacuum energy is calculated through the path integral approach. At some point ...
Apo's user avatar
  • 557
6 votes
1 answer
650 views

Two math methods apply the same loop integral lead different results! Why?

I tried to adopt the cut-off regulator to calculate a simple one-loop Feynman diagram in $\phi^4$-theory with two different math tricks. But in the end, I got two different results and was wondering ...
Di Liu's user avatar
  • 91
8 votes
2 answers
425 views

Why use a particular regularization for $\int_0^\infty \mathrm{d}x\,e^{i p x}$?

There are many badly defined integrals in physics. I want to discuss one of them which I see very often. $$\int_0^\infty \mathrm{d}x\,e^{i p x}$$ I have seen this integral in many physical problems. ...
Peter's user avatar
  • 467
21 votes
1 answer
1k views

LSZ reduction vs adiabatic hypothesis in perturbative calculation of interacting fields

As far as I know, there are two ways of constructing the computational rules in perturbative field theory. The first one (in Mandl and Shaw's QFT book) is to pretend in and out states as free states, ...
user26143's user avatar
  • 6,401

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