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0 answers
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About momentum states covariant normalization

I'm following QFT of Schwrtz and I have a doubt about Eq. (2.72). In particular, from Eq. (2.69): $$[a_k,a_p^\dagger]=(2\pi)^3\delta^3(\vec{p}-\vec{k}),\tag{2.69}$$ and Eq. (2.70): $$a_p^\dagger|0\...
Albus Black's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
176 views

How to normalize the states in the continuous limit?

In quantum field theories we can perform the continuous limit, where we take the limit $V\rightarrow\infty$ for the volume system. In quantum optics, we can start by absorbing a factor $\left(\frac{L}{...
HerpDerpington's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
66 views

Why two energies look same in the relativistic normalization?

I'm reading Peskin's QFT textbook. In this book, to make normalization of momentum eigenstate Lorentz invariant, we define momentum eigenket as $$\left| \mathbf{p} \right> = \sqrt{2E_{\mathbf{p}}} ...
김승현's user avatar
2 votes
0 answers
103 views

(Srednicki) How to obtain the normalization condition for Dirac field?

I'm reading through srednicki's qft and I met a problem. In its section 41, after he make an assumption that the creation operators of free field theory would work comparably in the interacting theory ...
Dzhou's user avatar
  • 125
3 votes
1 answer
507 views

Why do we need to normalise states in quantum field theory?

In QM its obvious that we need to normalise quantum states since their inner product squared represents a probability. This normalization leads to physical states in QM being represented by 'rays' of ...
Alex Gower's user avatar
  • 2,604
4 votes
0 answers
667 views

Normalization of One-Particle States for Klein-Gordon Field Quantization

Peskin & Schroeder in their QFT textbook discusses how we may normalize one-particle states $|\textbf{p}\rangle$ for Klein-Gordon field quantization in pages 22-23. The excerpts are given below. ...
rainman's user avatar
  • 3,023
5 votes
0 answers
243 views

LSZ formula in Srednicki, normalization issue

In the Ch.5 of his book, Srednicki says LSZ formula is valid provided the following conditions hold: $$ \langle 0|\phi(x)|0\rangle = 0, \langle p|\phi(x)|0\rangle = 1 $$ To achieve these conditions, ...
JJJ's user avatar
  • 51
1 vote
0 answers
112 views

Weinberg's normalization convention for momentum eigenstates

In this answer https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/376193/274751 two different conventions for the normalization of momentum eigenstates are mentioned. This convention amounts to the choice of $N(p)$ ...
Nicholas Engelbert's user avatar
7 votes
2 answers
661 views

Normalization of vacuum state in field theory

I am doing a calculation of an amplitude in QFT, not an expert in the subject so this may be a trivial question but cannot find the answer. What is the normalization of the vacuum state of the ...
user171780's user avatar
  • 1,872
4 votes
1 answer
572 views

Normalization of momentum eigenstates in QFT

Inspired by a previous question, I'd like to ask about the normalization of one-particle states in QFT. The most common normalization seems to be the covariant one: $$ \langle \vec p'|\vec p\rangle = (...
ersbygre1's user avatar
  • 2,648
0 votes
1 answer
181 views

How the normalization condition implies the following relation?

Using equation 2.35 from Peskin and Schroeder: $$ |\vec{p}\rangle=\sqrt{2 E_{\vec{p}}} a^{\dagger}_\vec{p} |0\rangle $$ should lead to $$ U(\Lambda)|\vec{p}\rangle = |\Lambda \vec{p}\rangle, $$ where ...
Edison Santos's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
195 views

How to compute normalization of one-particle states for Klein-Gordon field quantization

I am reading through Dr. Schwartz's book on quantum field theory; in section 2.3.1, he writes the following relation: $$\langle\mathbf{p}|\mathbf{k}\rangle=2\omega_p(2\pi)^3\delta^3(\mathbf{p}-\mathbf{...
John Dumancic's user avatar
4 votes
3 answers
472 views

Infinite correlation functions in free field theory

In a free scalar field theory, Wick's theorem guarantees that $\langle \hat\phi(x)\rangle = 0$ and $\langle \hat\phi(x)^2\rangle = \infty$. Given that $\hat \phi(x)$ creates a particle at $x$, these ...
laaksonenp's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
153 views

Is this integral always equal to 1?

This is my Hamiltonian. $\psi_{\alpha}$ is a bosonic field. $$H_{\alpha}=\int \mathrm{d} \mathbf{r} \psi_{\alpha}^{\dagger}(\mathbf{r})\left(-\frac{\nabla^{2}}{2 m}\right) \psi_{\alpha}(\mathbf{r})+\...
user45757's user avatar
  • 199
5 votes
1 answer
971 views

Weinberg QFT 1 Normalization one 1 particle states p. 66

I encounter a question regarding the derivation of the normalization of 1 Particle states in Weinbergs book (Formula 2.5.14). Similar questions were asked in A question on page 65 of Weinberg's ...
DerHutmacher's user avatar

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