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2 votes
0 answers
50 views

Is it possible that a macroscopic object tends to a separable state without the need for objective collapse?

For a multi-particle system, superposition is in some sense equivalent to entanglement; with the Dirac field being treated as classical under second quantization, for example, we could at least argue ...
Adam Herbst's user avatar
  • 2,475
6 votes
3 answers
335 views

Are combined fermion wavefunctions still antisymmetric after wavefunction collapse?

If we have two electrons in a state $|\psi\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}[|\uparrow\downarrow\rangle+|\downarrow\uparrow\rangle]$ and we measure the spin of the first electron to be up, does the wavefunction ...
Alex Gower's user avatar
  • 2,604