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1 vote
2 answers
100 views

Why must a constraint force be normal?

If we impose that a particle follows a holonomic constraint, so that it always remains on a surface defined by some function $f(x_1,x_2,x_3)=0$ with $f:\mathbb{R^3}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, we get a ...
16π Cent's user avatar
  • 101
1 vote
1 answer
114 views

Is the order of ordinary derivatives interchangeable in classical mechanics?

I am having trouble with a term that arises in a physics equation (deriving the Lagrange equation for one particle in one generalized coordinate, $q$, dimension from one Cartesian direction, $x$). My ...
user2721127's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
135 views

Constraints and time derivative

Consider a system of $N$ particles. There are $C$ holonomic time independent constraints, $$ \begin{aligned} f_1(\mathbf{r}_1,\dots,\mathbf{r}_N) & =0 \\ f_2(\mathbf{r}_1,\dots,\mathbf{r}_N) & ...
Zachary's user avatar
  • 265