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Jun 25 at 18:50 vote accept Not a chance
Jun 23 at 15:13 history edited Not a chance CC BY-SA 4.0
added quadratically to the title
Jun 23 at 10:47 answer added LPZ timeline score: 2
Jun 23 at 7:48 history edited Not a chance CC BY-SA 4.0
added image, made question more clear
Jun 22 at 14:21 history edited Kyle Kanos CC BY-SA 4.0
boldsymbol is for greeks letters
Jun 22 at 14:14 answer added Kyle Kanos timeline score: 0
Jun 22 at 13:15 comment added Kyle Kanos FWIW, I suspect there's something screwy in your derivation as your EOM (your last equation) does not appear to line up with expected equations (cf. this Physics.SE post).
Jun 22 at 13:04 comment added Kyle Kanos Wouldn't that require $\ddot{g}=0$? Is that condition true? Also, why solve it in Cartesian instead of the more straight-forward spherical coordinates?
Jun 22 at 10:40 comment added Not a chance well after calling myself completely into question, yes. The first derivative being $2\dot xx + 2\dot yy + 2\dot zz$
Jun 22 at 10:15 comment added basics Are you sure about this "Using the second time derivative of g we have $\dot{x}^2+\dot{y}^2+\dot{z}^2=−(\ddot{x}x+\ddot{y}y+\ddot{z}z)$?
Jun 22 at 9:34 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
added 6 characters in body; edited tags; edited title
Jun 22 at 9:21 history asked Not a chance CC BY-SA 4.0