I was reading classical mechanics by NC Rana . I was reading a topic on vanishing virtual work done due to constraint forces . How do you prove that the virtual work done by non holonomic-holonomic constraint which are homogeneous functions of velocities isis zero .? There is a proof given in the text but i find it unclear. How did he proceed after eq 1.31 .It It says the first summand will cancel with J(r , t)$J(r , t)$. How?.
I was reading classical mechanics by NC Rana . I was reading a topic on vanishing virtual work done due to constraint forces . How do you prove that the virtual work done by non holonomic constraint which are homogeneous functions of velocities is zero . There is a proof given in the text but i find it unclear. How did he proceed after eq 1.31 .It says the first summand will cancel with J(r , t). How?.
I was reading classical mechanics by NC Rana. I was reading a topic on vanishing virtual work done due to constraint forces. How do you prove that the virtual work done by non-holonomic constraint which are homogeneous functions of velocities is zero? There is a proof given in the text but i find it unclear. How did he proceed after eq 1.31. It says the first summand will cancel with $J(r , t)$. How?
I was reading classical mechanics by NC Rana . I was reading a topic on vanishing virtual work done due to constraint forces . How do you prove that the virtual work done by non holonomic constraint which are homogeneous functions of velocities is zero . There is a proof given in the text but i find it unclear. How did he proceed after eq 1.31 .It says the first summand will cancel with J(r , t). How?.
