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May 5 at 21:53 answer added Jos Bergervoet timeline score: 1
May 5 at 20:42 comment added JEB This is of course why really big electromagnets like to destroy themselves, force-wise. Energy-wise, $B^2$ in a volume $V$ has more energy than $(B-dB)^2$ in $V+dV$, and like most systems, magnets like to be in a lower energy configuration.
May 5 at 17:37 comment added my2cts Is $r$ the distance to the plane of the current loop and $a$ its radius?
May 5 at 15:09 comment added Gandalf73 Please try to solve what comes to you. My approach was to take two infinitesimal lengths on the circle, Q and P, as dl, and find the r vector between them, and integrate the whole thing from 0 to $2\pi$. Thanks in advance
May 5 at 14:55 comment added Jos Bergervoet Maybe a definition problem? I already asked about that here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/4901060/…
May 5 at 14:48 comment added Gandalf73 Yes, it will be an elliptical integral, but I don't know how to interpret that. $B = const * \int_0^1 \frac{dm}{m\sqrt{1-m^2}}$,, now according to mathematica, it would never converge, but that is not the case, we should get some value of finite field at the particular point in the wire. 'm' is some substitution of $\theta$
May 5 at 14:03 comment added Jos Bergervoet Not clear why you suggest that for a straight wire the field would be zero. It would if you are exactly in the center, but it seems more interesting to compute the field at the surface of the wire, which case exactly is the question about? (And anyway, for the loop you can probably get some complete Elliptical integral as a result if you do the calculation.)
May 5 at 13:50 history asked Gandalf73 CC BY-SA 4.0