Timeline for Does every object have an infinite amount of energy? [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
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| May 14 at 10:47 | comment | added | my2cts | This question belongs on scifi.stackexchange.com, where the answer might be 'Of course!' | |
| May 2 at 17:14 | comment | added | Agnius Vasiliauskas | The only way object can have infinite energy is when you transfer infinite energy to it, for example by pushing object to the speed of light. But this assumes you have to have infinite energy yourself in the first place. Which isn't real, hence no object in the universe can achieve this. | |
| May 2 at 17:08 | comment | added | Agnius Vasiliauskas | Say you push bike over distance of 1 meter with 1 Newton force. Then you did 1 joule work. From that you can calculate bike final velocity. The question when and how bike will stop or not - is another story. | |
| May 2 at 17:03 | comment | added | Agnius Vasiliauskas | Every object now and then has limited amount of total energy which is bounded by condition : $$\sqrt{\frac {E_{tot} } {\gamma m} } \leq c$$. Your problem is that you include not that distance in work calculation - it must be distance over which force is applied, not total covered distance by body. | |
| S May 2 at 16:58 | history | closed |
Matt Hanson Dale newtonian-mechanics Users with the newtonian-mechanics badge can single-handedly close newtonian-mechanics questions as duplicates and reopen them as needed. |
Duplicate of Can infinite work be done? | |
| S May 2 at 16:58 | comment | added | Dale | Does this answer your question? Can infinite work be done? | |
| May 2 at 16:48 | comment | added | trula | 1. There is no speed greater than c. 2. There is no "any amount of force". How do you imagine it? | |
| May 2 at 16:46 | answer | added | Níckolas Alves | timeline score: 6 | |
| May 2 at 16:45 | history | edited | Níckolas Alves |
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| May 2 at 16:41 | comment | added | ryangosling | In this post I was talking about applying force for a limited finite duration. But I don't think there's a difference between the two; since our object is on a frictionless surface the object should approach infinity regardless of how much force is applied to it over what period of time based on Newton's First Law of Motion. | |
| May 2 at 16:38 | comment | added | Vincent Thacker | Do you mean applying a force for a limited finite duration or applying a force forever? | |
| May 2 at 16:36 | history | edited | ryangosling | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| S May 2 at 16:36 | review | First questions | |||
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| S May 2 at 16:36 | history | asked | ryangosling | CC BY-SA 4.0 |