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May 13, 2023 at 8:20 history edited Rita Garain CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 13, 2023 at 3:16 comment added naturallyInconsistent No, for a = const and v = 0 that really means that $\frac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}\to\infty$
May 12, 2023 at 23:04 history edited Qmechanic
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May 12, 2023 at 23:03 comment added Yukterez To avoid 0/0 take the limit so your values approach, but are not really 0.
May 12, 2023 at 23:03 history edited Qmechanic CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 12, 2023 at 22:38 history asked Rita Garain CC BY-SA 4.0