Timeline for (Physics 2, Waves) Why does $\tan(\theta) = dy/dx$? [closed]
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 20, 2023 at 15:38 | history | left closed in review |
BioPhysicist Jon Custer Roger V. |
Original close reason(s) were not resolved | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 12:28 | review | Reopen votes | |||
| Apr 20, 2023 at 15:38 | |||||
| Apr 20, 2023 at 11:00 | history | closed |
Miyase joseph h Bob D |
Not suitable for this site | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 8:28 | answer | added | mathema | timeline score: 0 | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 8:22 | comment | added | J.G. | In my experience the slope $dy/dx$ is usually denoted $\tan\psi$ to avoid conflation of $\psi$ with the polar angle $\theta$. | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 8:07 | answer | added | Agnius Vasiliauskas | timeline score: 1 | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 7:59 | comment | added | John Rennie | How is this homework? It's question about a derivation for equation of motion of a string. The close voters (and you know who you are) need to examine their views about helping other people understand physics as well as they do. | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 7:00 | review | Close votes | |||
| Apr 20, 2023 at 11:06 | |||||
| Apr 20, 2023 at 5:23 | comment | added | naturallyInconsistent | It is that dx. The dm is almost the hypothenuse, dy is then the vertical third leg of that triangle. tangent is a slope, by definition of tangent. Thus, there is an angle (very close to the vert opp angle of $\theta_1$) where it is the tangent of | |
| Apr 20, 2023 at 4:59 | history | edited | Qmechanic♦ | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 10 characters in body; edited title
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| Apr 20, 2023 at 4:50 | history | asked | Jamshid Batswani | CC BY-SA 4.0 |