You are not logged in. Your edit will be placed in a queue until it is peer reviewed.
We welcome edits that make the post easier to understand and more valuable for readers. Because community members review edits, please try to make the post substantially better than how you found it, for example, by fixing grammar or adding additional resources and hyperlinks.
-
1$\begingroup$ "As of today, nobody knows how to quantise a classical theory with first class constraints." I don't know what that's supposed to mean, especially given the reference you give for it - the entire book is about how to quantize such theories! Both the Dirac-Bergmann recipe and the BRST method produce perfectly fine quantum theories. $\endgroup$– ACuriousMind ♦Commented Jan 19, 2017 at 15:00
-
$\begingroup$ @ACuriousMind I guess I don't really remember the details, but in my memory the quantisation of systems with 1st class constraints begins by turning all of them into 2nd class constraints, or by imposing several gauge-fixing conditions. In this sense, we are not really quantising a system with 1st class constraints, but one that is physically equivalent and has no 1st class constraints. But perhaps this is not true, I should read the book again... $\endgroup$– AccidentalFourierTransformCommented Jan 19, 2017 at 15:46
-
$\begingroup$ What does your notation $p^t$ mean? Also, could it possible to have a massless field with no longitudinal states in a continuum theory that is not Lorentz invariant, without needing to explicitly fix a gauge? $\endgroup$– tparkerCommented Jul 18, 2017 at 0:30
-
1$\begingroup$ What do you mean when you say that "the discretized integral diverges, by the usual arguments"? This is not true of lattice gauge theories. $\endgroup$– user1504Commented Jul 19, 2017 at 18:16
-
1$\begingroup$ @tparker 1) by $p^t$ I mean the transpose of $p=(p^0,...,p^3)$, that is, $(pp^t)^\mu{}_\nu=p^\mu p_\nu$. 2) yes, and you can also have that in a relativistic theory. E.g., a skew tensor field $F_{\mu\nu}$ describes massless fields with no longitudinal states, whether it comes from a vector $A_\mu$ or not. But if you want - and this seems to be what nature chose - $F$ to be the exterior derivative of $A$, then you must have a gauge symmetry regardless of whether the theory is relativistic or not. Mainly, because a massless particle has 2 d.o.f. while $A$ has 4 components. You need a redundancy. $\endgroup$– AccidentalFourierTransformCommented Jul 19, 2017 at 18:36
|
Show 2 more comments
How to Edit
- Correct minor typos or mistakes
- Clarify meaning without changing it
- Add related resources or links
- Always respect the author’s intent
- Don’t use edits to reply to the author
How to Format
-
create code fences with backticks ` or tildes ~
```
like so
``` -
add language identifier to highlight code
```python
def function(foo):
print(foo)
``` - put returns between paragraphs
- for linebreak add 2 spaces at end
- _italic_ or **bold**
- quote by placing > at start of line
- to make links (use https whenever possible)
<https://example.com>
[example](https://example.com)
<a href="https://example.com">example</a> - MathJax equations
$\sin^2 \theta$
How to Tag
A tag is a keyword or label that categorizes your question with other, similar questions. Choose one or more (up to 5) tags that will help answerers to find and interpret your question.
- complete the sentence: my question is about...
- use tags that describe things or concepts that are essential, not incidental to your question
- favor using existing popular tags
- read the descriptions that appear below the tag
If your question is primarily about a topic for which you can't find a tag:
- combine multiple words into single-words with hyphens (e.g. quantum-mechanics), up to a maximum of 35 characters
- creating new tags is a privilege; if you can't yet create a tag you need, then post this question without it, then ask the community to create it for you