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  • $\begingroup$ Why do you find this "distasteful"? We quotient out the gauge-related configuration because they are physically the same thing. It seems entirely natural and resonable to me to integrate over each physical configuration exactly once, so it seems unreasonable to me to expect a procedure where we do not, in some sense, fix the gauge before integrating. $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind ♦
    Commented Jan 19, 2017 at 14:25
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @ACuriousMind If your theory is supposed to be gauge invariant, I find it distasteful to bastardize the gauge symmetry by fixing it. $\endgroup$
    – Yossarian
    Commented Jan 19, 2017 at 14:27
  • $\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/130368/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/139475/2451 , physics.stackexchange.com/q/173360/2451 and links therein. $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic ♦
    Commented Jan 19, 2017 at 20:24