Timeline for Gauge invariance (QED)
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
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Mar 9, 2015 at 2:41 | comment | added | Ali Moh | intuitively the amplitude should be invariant under $\epsilon_\mu (p)\rightarrow \epsilon_\mu (p) + \alpha p_\mu$ because this represents a change in the longitudinal mode of the photon. See Srednicki Ch 67, or Zee II.7 or Weinberg 10.5 | |
Mar 9, 2015 at 2:12 | history | edited | Ali Moh | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Mar 9, 2015 at 1:04 | comment | added | PhilosophicalPhysics | By the way, Ali, you said that this Wrd was a consequence of gauge invariance. I am interested to know how is it that this is a consequence of that. If you have any reference you could link me to, I would appreciate it. | |
Mar 8, 2015 at 23:36 | vote | accept | PhilosophicalPhysics | ||
Mar 8, 2015 at 23:33 | comment | added | Ali Moh | He is probably emphasizing that ward identity holds for the amplitude, and not necessarily for each of the feynman diagrams whose sum is the amplitude.. | |
Mar 8, 2015 at 23:26 | comment | added | PhilosophicalPhysics | Thank you Ali for your reply. But the author insisted that these conditions are met although the quantities in the equation $k_{1\nu}(A^{\mu\nu} + \tilde{A}^{\mu\nu})=0=k_{2\mu}(A^{\mu\nu} + \tilde{A}^{\mu\nu})$ each separately are all different from zero. Why would he say that if it is already a consequence of ward identity? | |
Mar 8, 2015 at 23:19 | history | edited | Ali Moh | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Mar 8, 2015 at 23:13 | history | answered | Ali Moh | CC BY-SA 3.0 |