Skip to main content

All Questions

Tagged with
2 votes
7 answers
377 views

Applying logic to the question of whether all of existence is infinite or not

Here, I use to exist as generally as possible; if it is an object, it exists; if it is conceivable, it exists; if it is anything, it exists; even the properties and relations themselves exist. ...
user110391's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
102 views

Can a backwards infinite regress account for its own existence?

Suppose we have a domain of discourse D with an infinite collection of elements, and suppose that it is the case that the existence of each element x is dependent upon another element y (or collection ...
Mark's user avatar
  • 387
2 votes
3 answers
214 views

Do questions of Infinite regress, uncased cause and nothingness just point to our limits?

A lot of debates and conversations with theists seem to end up with the "ultimate" questions where the questions themselves seem to me to be conceptual/linguistic/psychological dead ends. Infinite ...
MGm's user avatar
  • 21
3 votes
3 answers
139 views

Can something sensible be said about a world of complete nothingness?

One thought that keeps me up at night is when I start to think about the world "before" the universe existed and "beyond" the universe itself. I know that it doesn't really make sense to speak about "...
vonjd's user avatar
  • 1,051
13 votes
9 answers
2k views

Are infinities in physics (or in any other materalist philosophy) actually possible?

Aristotle made a distinction between infinities that were in potential (dunamis) and in actuality (energia); and stated that actual infinities did not obtain in the physical world. This is the basis ...
Mozibur Ullah's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
281 views

Is there a finitistic set theory, and if there is, is it provably consistent?

ZFC is the mainstream set theory. It has an axiom of infinity which claims that there is at least one infinite set. Now suppose like Aristotle, we object and say that there are no actually infinites ...
Mozibur Ullah's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
2k views

Why is infinite regress a problem for ontological explanations?

Suppose some ontological theory creates an infinite regress. Take, for example, Platon's concept of ideas, and then there must be some connection between idea and its actualisation, and then this ...
Tommi's user avatar
  • 350