All Questions
5
questions
6
votes
2
answers
147
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Does Kant implicitly commit the paralogism of pure reason when saying that to have a representation it is necessary to accompany it with 'I think'?
In Caygill's Kant Dictionary entry of 'I Think' there is this part:
Kant further claims that 'I think' is the necessary vehicle/form/accompaniment of experience: to have a representation it is ...
- 613
3
votes
3
answers
336
views
Is "thoughts exist" a synthetic a priori statement?
I'm working off of Kant's conception of analytic/synthetic and a prior/a posteriori judgements.
The definition of "thoughts" does not subsume their existence. That is, it is logically ...
- 387
6
votes
1
answer
1k
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For Husserl, how can we know things in themselves?
I don't quite understand the nature of "going back to things themselves". How does Husserl break away from Kant?
- 61
8
votes
4
answers
2k
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What are the counterexamples to Kant's argument that existence is not a predicate?
Kant argued that considering existence as a predicate is wrong. A predicate is a feature or characteristic of an object. But logically, existence adds nothing to the characteristics of that object, ...
1
vote
2
answers
243
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Why do some philosophers argue that we do not know, a priori, that something thinks?
The Cartesian argument seems to explicate the fact that I necessarily know that something thinks, and that I necessarily know that something thinks even if I don't checking the world to verify whether ...
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