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EDIT - My original question was answered, but not to my satisfaction. What I really want is a formal proof α = α isn't a contingency, using the modal logic version of Hao Wang's axiom of Identity. I said 'preferably' because I know how to prove it's a tautology by knowing it isn't a contingency.

To be crystal clear I want a proof that

⊢ ∀x[x=x] ∨ ⊢ ~∀x[x=x]

Then I can prove

Theorem 2: ∀z[z=z]

Let y be a specific constant.

  1. ⊢ ~∀x[x=x] [OSC1]
  2. ⊢ ∃x[~(x=x)] [1;QN]
  3. ⊢ ~(y=y) [2;EI]
  4. ⊢ ☐~(y=y) [3;NEC]
  5. ⊢ ~◊~~(y=y) [4; Df]
  6. ⊢ ~◊y=y [5; DN]
  7. ⊢ ◊y=y [Th.1]
  8. ⊢ ◊y=y ∧ ~◊y=y [7,6; conj]
  9. (⊢ ~∀x[x=x]) → contradiction [1-8; CSC1]
  10. ~ ⊢ ~∀x[x=x] [9;UG]

At this point if I know ∀x[x=x] isn't a contingency, I can use disjunctive syllogism to conclude ⊢ ∀x[x=x]


It's clear that the proposition denoted by x=x isn't a contingency, but I want to prove this formally. Does anyone know how I could do this?

You can use Hao Wang's axiom of Identity.

Hao Wang's Axiom of Identity

  • ∀y[Φ(y) iff ∃x[x=y ∧ Φ(x)]]

Or preferably you could use

Modal Logic Version of Hao Wang's axiom of Identity

  • ∀y[Φ(y) iff ∃x[◊x=y ∧ Φ(x)]]

The system I've been working in is SQML, but any system is fine.

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  • Your x = x is not a proposition because it has a free variable, presumably, you want ∀x(x = x). Since ∀x(x = x) is a theorem (even an axiom) of standard predicate logic with identity □∀x(x = x) follows in K by the necessitation law. Hao Wang's "axiom", which is not an axiom, is strictly stronger than the mere reflexivity of = needed. It also implies symmetry, transitivity and substitutivity of = in predicate logic.
    – Conifold
    Commented May 29 at 5:32
  • @Conifold i intended x=x to denote a proposition, therefore you could have inferred I intended x to not be a variable. I was typing in a car and didn't have the patience to use alpha=alpha, where alpha is an arbitrary constant.
    – lee pappas
    Commented May 29 at 10:09
  • 1
    Please, spare us "arbitrary constants" until you can say something coherent about them or find a reference that does. Did you read Fine's paper, at least?
    – Conifold
    Commented May 29 at 10:43
  • What is the objective? It's like you're trying to prove: "Granite is not soft, therefore granite is hard." We already know granite is hard.
    – Scott Rowe
    Commented May 29 at 10:57
  • @conifold, I may have. I usually read the papers in suggested links. To what paper of Fine are you referring?
    – lee pappas
    Commented May 29 at 11:11

4 Answers 4

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How to prove that the proposition denoted by x=x isn't a contingency, using Hao Wang's Axiom of Identity.

We have to use the formula ¬(z=y) as Φ(z). Thus, Φ(y) is ¬(y=y) and Φ(x) is ¬(x=y).

The relevant instance of the axiom-schema will be:

¬(y=y) ↔ ∃x[x=y ∧ ¬(x=y)].

But the right-hand side is a contradiction, and thus ¬(y=y) is equivalent to a contradiction, that means that (y=y) is always true.

By Generalization, we have ∀x (x=x).

Also the substitution property of equality follows from the axiom schema:

(x=y ∧ Φ(x)) → Φ(y).

Having reflexivity and substitution, the remaing laws of equality, like simmetry and transitivity, can be proved.

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  • I have my own plan for proving necessary x=x using modal logic, but I need to know that x=x is either a tautology or a contradiction to carry out the proof. You went straight to it's a tautology. I need someone to show me how to prove it isn't a contingency t using the modal version of the Identity Axiom.
    – lee pappas
    Commented May 28 at 21:01
  • @leepappas I think you should assume x=x is a contradiction and see how things go from there?
    – Scott Rowe
    Commented May 29 at 0:20
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Let me provide a complementary answer to @Mauro.

Classically we attribute contingency to sentences. While we can change our deductive system to allow proofs of formulas with free variables (see Alex Krukman's lecture notes on model theory), a more standard route is to show that P:= "Vx, x=x" is necessary.

Then, P is a theorem of classical logic (use soundness). Then necessarily P (use necessitation). so we only need a very weak modal logic to do this (say K)

1
  • that resembles my plan. I don't want to use free variables. I want my first line to be Theorem x=x or Theorem not (x=x). Then show if theorem not(x=x) then contradiction. Therefore Theorem x=x. So I need x=x isn't a contingency. Here x is an arbitrary constant not a free variable
    – lee pappas
    Commented May 28 at 21:15
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A follow-up proof outline

  1. ∃x(¬x = x) [Assume for reductio ad absurdum]

  2. Ergo,
  3. ¬∃x(¬x = x) [1 to 2, RAA]
  4. ∀x(x = x) [3 QN]
    QED

Note: Since The Law of Identity is not contigent, it's necessary. The negation of a necessary truth is a contradiction (hence my proof by contradiction)

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I am unable to prove it formally, but I can use the metalanguage English, and a meta-axiom to prove it. Perhaps someone else can improve on this.

Metalanguage: English

Undefined binary relations: is-currently, can-become

Meta-axiom: Meaning is constant in time, truth value can vary.

Definitions

A tautology is a statement that denotes a proposition whose truth value is constant in time and is currently true.

Thus a tautology is always currently true. That means if the statement is compound, and the truth value of the proposition it denotes is true in every row of its truth table it's a tautology.

A contradiction is a statement that denotes a proposition whose truth value is constant in time and is currently false.

Thus a contradiction is always currently false. That means if a statement is compound, and the truth value of the proposition it denotes is false in every row of its truth table, it's a contradiction.

A contingency is a statement that is neither a tautology nor a contradiction.

We have simple statements, of the form a=b. The only way a simple statement can be a contingency is if the truth value of the proposition it denotes can vary in time (edit: or place or in some other sense. Re: Aristotle's definition of a contradiction as to state that something is and is not ... in the same sense and at the same time)

Using the metalanguage of English we may say

The expression 'a=b' means the thing symbolized by a is-currently the thing symbolized by b. Let's say the things symbols symbolize are their meanings.

Suppose 'a=b' is currently true. Then the meaning of a is the meaning of b. Suppose it can become false. Then the meaning of a would be different than the meaning of b. Thus, the meaning of a or the meaning of b would have to vary in time, which is impossible.

Therefore if 'a=b' is currently true, it cannot become false.

Similarly, if 'a=b' is currently false, it cannot become true.

By the law of the excluded middle, a=b is currently true or currently false. Therefore by constructive dilemma, 'a=b' cannot become true and cannot become false. Therefore, it isn't a contingency.

Let α be an arbitrary constant, and consider the statement α=α. By the preceding discussion, it's either a tautology or a contradiction. This alone doesn't tell you

⊢ ∀x[x=x] ∨ ⊢ ~∀x[x=x]

You need to to specify that your system with equality '=', is to be complete. Thus, all tautologies besides the axioms are theorems.

Now, suppose α=α is a tautology. Then ⊢ α=α, so by UG ⊢ ∀x[x=x]. IF it's a contradiction then ⊢ ~∀x[x=x]. Since α=α is either a tautology or a contradiction, we have

⊢ ∀x[x=x] ∨ ⊢ ~∀x[x=x]

I wanted something better, but perhaps someone else can find a formal proof using modal binary logic, or temporal modal binary logic.

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  • You get a gold star for clarity. If a statement is not contingent then it's necessary, which cogito implies you need to use modal logic. A necessary truth is one that's true in all possible worlds i.e. its negation would be a contradiction. Have you tried reductio ad absurdum?
    – Hudjefa
    Commented May 30 at 3:16
  • If The Law of Identity were false then the words used in this sentence would change in meaning i.e. it could one day mean that fish don't have gills or that I'm on Mars, eating hotdog. This actually happens, a classic example is the well-worn phrase "the exception proves the rule". The word "prove" used to mean test
    – Hudjefa
    Commented May 30 at 3:21
  • When I say dog = dog, I mean to say the referent of the word "dog" is the constant = a tamed wolf. As part of an argument, this is a sine qua non. Otherwise, we would commit the fallacy of equivocation e.g. All stars emit their own light. Brad Pitt is a star. Ergo, Brad Pitt emits his own light.
    – Hudjefa
    Commented May 30 at 3:27
  • Your setup is inconsistent with second-order logic, which suggests that it has no set-valued models. You may have a serious issue proving that your setup is consistent.
    – Corbin
    Commented Jun 30 at 15:24

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