So my question arises from an argument that I have seen regarding some people debating over some ancient inscriptions.
My question is as follows, "Wouldn't any possible explanation for the meanings and values of the inscription become non-sequitur in various degrees because of the complete lack of cultural context and therefore any perspective and explanation would be equally as futile to the point it renders the inscription itself useless?" This is specifically for ancient texts possibly in the B.C. period.
I understand that history is an iffy subject to obtain accuracy of truth and that there are many speculations and hypotheses from scholars but it is true that the lesser the distance from the present day the more accuracy because, for one, the increase of technology to capture such history be it a papyrus or a camera and secondly, similarity to current language.
But I feel like there is a cutoff point where any possible explanation will equally be far from the truth because of the immense distance both linguistically, culturally and technologically.
For example, most historical scholars agree on the fact that a man named Jesus existed and he was punished by the Roman empire in the form of crucifixion, this is a normal claim and is backed up by countless evidence and is substantiated logically because of the two reasons I have mentioned above.
Now on the other hand, let's think of a made up scenario where a group of archaeologists find an ancient Minoan/Hittite inscription from 1500 B.C. that says "alien" (subjectively thought so to be because of slight similarities with "long descendant" language) in that language (linguists' job and assumption) and has carvings of tall beings with non-human features on it, would it be right (approximately accurate) to: A) Make the assumption that there were extraterrestrials in the past B) Make the assumption these were some sort of deities C) Make the assumption that there were extraterrestrials that were deities for these people D) Make the assumption that there were forms of storytelling and/or these were how they depicted their enemies of war E) There were migrants from a remote place here on Earth and they had some distinct form of wardrobe and the drawings are just poorly drawn
For me, none of these would be remotely true as no matter what they do will be farther from the truth and actually all of these I believe are equally not close or accurate to what might have actually happened. I feel like there is a cut off point in time at which point one's hypotheses and theory can not be proven and therefore could not be concluded and surely will be open to as much hypotheses as possible, but I am not sure, is this right?
In short, I am trying to get an insight to the problem of the influence of presentism on historical-finding discrepancies and how it is proportionally associated with temporal distance from the present. In the example of Jesus, we have multiple evidences and multiple texts not the far from the time of origin but in case of the inscription even though a primary source we can't obtain anything from it because as there is more distance from the past to now, the inaccuracy and difference in social and cultural context increases up to the point where even if the translation of the inscription is possible, it would be devoid of meaning when translated to a word, sentence or paragraph that we understand in the modern day. Speculation remains speculation therefore allowing any and every possible speculation but never definitive translation that carries meaning (answer) to the inscription, right?