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Dec 27, 2021 at 8:41 review Close votes
Jan 1, 2022 at 3:02
Dec 21, 2021 at 21:44 comment added Wakem philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/88557/…
Dec 21, 2021 at 15:57 history edited J D
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Dec 21, 2021 at 15:55 answer added J D timeline score: 1
Dec 21, 2021 at 15:37 history edited J D CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 21, 2021 at 15:34 comment added J D Welcome to SE Philosophy! Thanks for your contribution. Please take a quick moment to take the tour or find help. You can perform searches here or seek additional clarification at the meta site. Don't forget, when someone has answered your question, you can click on the arrow to reward the contributor and the checkmark to select what you feel is the best answer.
Dec 21, 2021 at 14:42 history edited J D CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 21, 2021 at 7:02 comment added Double Knot Your wish of "probable proof" needs clarification, proof is a concept in logic realm without probability modality usually (most inference rules has no probability-mixin), otherwise epistemic closure breaks down easily which sabotages the utility of formal logic. Even fuzzy logic's IF-THEN rules are deterministic. Philosophical argument is nothing but argument with philosophical background knowledge and can be usually formalized if you insist. Sound philosophical argument is conservative extension of math, thus cannot magically prove math theorems "probably" if you cannot do so formally in math
Dec 21, 2021 at 7:01 history edited Mauro ALLEGRANZA
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Dec 21, 2021 at 5:49 comment added Conifold The "method of philosophical argument" is the method of common sense, only more refined and elaborate. That's the only method for making probable proofs about reality we have, only mathematics has the luxury of simply postulating its premises and rules.
Dec 21, 2021 at 4:56 comment added Noah Schweber What exactly is "the method of philosophical argument"? It might help if you give a concrete example of the sort of application you have in mind.
Dec 21, 2021 at 2:49 history asked Wakem CC BY-SA 4.0