Timeline for What is the logical distinction between “the same” and “equal to?”
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 24, 2019 at 14:38 | history | edited | J D | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 1338 characters in body
|
| Sep 24, 2019 at 13:34 | comment | added | J D | @VogonPoet That's not mysterious either. As symbolic entities, they differ in both syntax and semantics. Sometimes different syntax expresses the same content (synonym), and sometimes the same syntax expresses different content (homonym). In your case, they share some content, but not all. Since they share some, but not all, they are not the same. | |
| Sep 24, 2019 at 13:23 | comment | added | Vogon Poet | @J D - The philosophical question is “why.” Not looking for a simple confirmation. Thanks | |
| Sep 24, 2019 at 12:49 | comment | added | J D | @VogonPoet A and B are simply interrogative forms of two statements both of which feature the same subject C. "Birds are animals that have feathers and fly." and "Birds are the primary subject of the artist John James Audubon." are just two distinct statements. They both belong to a set of propositions that have the subject "bird". There's nothing mysterious here. A is not identical to B. | |
| Sep 23, 2019 at 18:49 | comment | added | Vogon Poet | That makes clear what “the same” is not - it isn’t a bidirectional implication. But what is it then? How do we succinctly describe this fallacy? | |
| Sep 23, 2019 at 18:44 | history | edited | J D | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 233 characters in body
|
| Sep 23, 2019 at 18:37 | history | edited | J D | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 233 characters in body
|
| Sep 23, 2019 at 18:31 | history | answered | J D | CC BY-SA 4.0 |