Timeline for Is it a fallacy to argue or morally judge by treating earlier and later times as if in the same present?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Dec 8, 2016 at 1:01 | history | edited | Conifold | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Nov 19, 2016 at 0:22 | history | edited | Conifold | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 9, 2016 at 13:25 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackPhilosophy/status/785108875443920896 | ||
Oct 9, 2016 at 5:13 | vote | accept | Dave Cousineau | ||
Oct 9, 2016 at 2:22 | history | edited | Conifold |
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Oct 9, 2016 at 1:42 | history | edited | Conifold | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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Oct 9, 2016 at 1:39 | answer | added | Conifold | timeline score: 1 | |
Oct 8, 2016 at 17:11 | comment | added | user9166 | You need either a better example or a different way of putting your notion of responsibility. Arguments 'for' abortion often consider the future person's likely misery as an unwanted child, arguments against it usually just declare that is already a person, whose death you are causing, and are not involving your 'fallacy'. As it is, I have no real clue what you mean, other than false assignment of effect or cause, and false predictions or false causes can rely upon a range of fallacies, not a single one. | |
Oct 8, 2016 at 16:42 | review | First posts | |||
Oct 9, 2016 at 0:14 | |||||
Oct 8, 2016 at 16:38 | history | asked | Dave Cousineau | CC BY-SA 3.0 |