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Oct 29, 2023 at 2:26 comment added Annika @8Mad0Manc8 the time at which a particle will be emitted from an unstable atom is not deterministic, but follows some distribution. Any process at the quantum level has this kind of indeterminacy to a greater or lesser degree. Right before the particle was emitted, there was no "cause" that determined that exact moment was when it was going to emit.
Oct 29, 2023 at 1:18 comment added 8Mad0Manc8 @Annika So your saying that the event of the emmision of a particle of a radioactive atom that prior to that emmision was not stable has not determined the effect, or the event that it has now become stable? Sorry for the hassle.
Oct 29, 2023 at 0:24 comment added Annika @8Mad0Manc8 pick any quantum mechanical event — there are probabilities, tendencies, possibilities but not deterministic causes — only statistical laws. That is what I am referring to.
Oct 28, 2023 at 23:56 comment added 8Mad0Manc8 @Annika you state in your question that fision of a radionuclide is an example of an quantum event that does not have a cause however I have been doing some research and the emmision in radioactive decay is caused by an unstable relationship between the nucleus of an atom and its orbiting electrons in a stable atom there is a balance in an unstable atom there is an imbalance and the atom will emit a particle, the energy loss stabilises the atom, However you are unable to determine when the atom will emit a particle but it would not if it were stable. So do other quantum events have no cause?
Oct 27, 2023 at 13:58 comment added Annika @8Mad0Manc8 correct -- perhaps my math background showing up lol. Clearly was not a helpful term for some.
Oct 27, 2023 at 13:36 comment added 8Mad0Manc8 @Annika I see your imagining the progress of time a line rising vertically with T=0 at the base of that line, and every other point above it as closer to the present. well at least i think you are?
Oct 27, 2023 at 13:28 comment added Annika @8Mad0Manc8 temporally bounded here was only "from below", so there is a hard stop at T=0. It was the first (and only available) moment for a beginning, and so uncaused/had no precedents, nor did it need a cause since it is the first moment where causality can even operate. Anyway, that is the view from a classical view of phenomenal time (see surrounding paragraph for that context). Other answers give options where this isn't the case.
Oct 27, 2023 at 9:54 comment added 8Mad0Manc8 And space can either be infinite and bounded,infinite and unbounded, finite and unbounded or finite and bounded? so what does temporally bounded below mean?
Oct 27, 2023 at 9:30 comment added 8Mad0Manc8 Does he use of temporarily bounded mean there is a boundary of time such that there is a beginning and an end to time ? There is either no begining to time and no end of time, no begining to time and an end to time,a begining to time and no end of time, or a beginingg to time and an end of time? and how can time be below? to me below is the relative position between two objects in space and no object is either below or above on the right side or left side or the front or the back, to another object in space?
Oct 26, 2023 at 21:27 history edited Annika CC BY-SA 4.0
remove confusing "per Kalam"
Oct 26, 2023 at 21:21 comment added Annika @JoWehler removed it as I it's not value-added to the sentence.
Oct 26, 2023 at 21:21 history edited Annika CC BY-SA 4.0
remove confusing "per Kalam"
Oct 25, 2023 at 19:43 history edited Annika CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body
Oct 25, 2023 at 16:09 comment added Annika @JoWehler kalam cosmological argument -- the argument that there needs to be an uncaused cause and that cause is God.
Oct 25, 2023 at 16:08 comment added Jo Wehler +1 for the judgement of the last passage. - But what does mean "per Kalam"?
Oct 25, 2023 at 15:57 history answered Annika CC BY-SA 4.0